If the events A and B are independent, then P(A and B) = P(A)P(B). True or false. I say false..
I believe, if there's some sort of cross dependence then it could be that P(A and B) is more likely than both happen to happen at the same time separately
it is true.
Damn I'm always failing this crap lol can you explain @surjithayer
@surjithayer are the both terms the exact same thing ?
if two events are independent then probability of one is independent of second and vice verse.
so, because they're independent it doesn't matter if we ask P(A) and P(B) or P(A and B) because, P(A and B) is not more likely than P(A) and P(B)
i dont understand independence :(
I think understand it 0.o
what is different, if there is dependence ? they're more likely to happen together right ?
what confuses me is that P(A) and P(B) is also when they're together......
Ohh yeah true... damn
here I give one example. A die is thrown and 6 possible outcome are assumed to be equally likely. If E is the event :"the number appearing is a multiple of 3."and F The event:" the number appearing is even." Then show that E and F are independent. P(E)=P({3,6})=2/6=1/3 P(F)=P({2,4,6})=3/6=1/2 P(E and F)=P({6})=1/6 1/6=1/3 *1/2 P(E and F)=P(E) *P(F)
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