I have d/dy cos(y^2)=2ysin(y^2) and d/dx cos(y^2)=-2ysin(y^2). I know the first one is false, but my question is how would the second proof be different with the d/dx instead of d/dy?

Question

anonymous · Answer

first one is wrong, it is missing a minus sign

anonymous · Answer

also for the $\frac{d}{dx}$ vs $\frac{d}{dy}$ notation, there is no difference
the $dy$ just tells you the variable is $y$

anonymous · Answer

i know, i did that

anonymous · Answer

it says assume y is a function of x

anonymous · Answer

so the second equation would be solved the same way as the first but it would be true because it has a - sign? the d/dx has nothing to do with the second proof?

goformit100 · Answer

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