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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Determine all x in [−π/2, π/2] at which the graph has horizontal tangents F'(x) = 4cos^3(x)/(sin^2(x)+1)^2 I already found the derivative but im stuck when I make the numerator = 0 and I cant find the horizontal tangents.. Help please

OpenStudy (wolfe8):

What can be said about the derivative of a function(given) at a point with the gradient of its tangential line?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that is equal to 0?

OpenStudy (wolfe8):

No. However 0 is the gradient of a horizontal line. In your case, the gradient of the tangent is then 0. But how will that help you find x? You have the derivative of a curve function. Can you recall the relationship between the 2?

OpenStudy (wolfe8):

Between the derivative of a function and the gradient of the function's tangential line. Hint: what do you do when you derive, in this case, dy/dx?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

u make it equal to zero? In order to find the horizontal tangent line... Im just stuck with my algebra when i make it equal to zero

OpenStudy (wolfe8):

Can you show me what you did?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

4cos^3x=0 then im stuck here

OpenStudy (wolfe8):

Hmm I can't do it myself for now, but here is what I got from somewhere: (4 cos^3(x))/(1+sin^2(x))^2 = 0 Divide both sides by a constant to simplify the equation. Divide both sides by 4: (cos^3(x))/(1+sin^2(x))^2 = 0 Solve for x in the numerator. Multiply both sides by (1+sin^2(x))^2 assuming (1+sin^2(x))^2 !=0: cos^3(x) = 0 for 1+sin^2(x)!=0 Eliminate the exponent. Take the cube root of both sides: cos(x) = 0 for 1+sin^2(x)!=0 Eliminate the cosine from the left hand side. Take the inverse cosine of both sides: x = pi/2+pi n for 1+sin^2(x)!=0 and n element Z Omit unnecessary assumptions. The roots x = pi/2+pi n never violate 1+sin^2(x)!=0, which means this assumption can be omitted: Answer: | | x = pi/2+pi n for n element Z Now you will have to figure out how the restriction on x applies to the final answer.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay thanks

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