Normal distributions
@shamil98 How was the series stuff. Do you think you got a hang of it?
I think I understand it , I've done series before, but there are many more series with different formulas and such.
When you get better at calculus, we can go into divergent and convergent series. I wanted you to learn a bit about series so in the future we can do integrals from scratch.
alright, i do understand what we went over then.
Okay, let's start off with the concept of a distribution. When I say normal distribution, what is a distribution? A distribution is a family of functions. They have certain inputs but there are other non input constants that need to be sorted out before you have a normal function.
For example \[ f(x) = mx+b \]You could say this is the linear distribution. \(x\) is the input. \(m\) and \(b\) are constants that need to be sorted out before you have a normal function
so while \[ f(x) = 2x+6 \]Is a function \[ f(x) = mx+b \]is a distribution. Does that make sense?
Or you could think of a distribution as a function of functions.. like a meta function
I think so, it's a distribution because there are more than one variable that needs to be substituted or found out?.. like f(3) = 2(3) + 6 f(3) = m(3) + b you still have too find m and b..
Well, for example \[ f(x,y) = x^2+y^2 \]is still a function because all of the variables are inputs, but \[ f(x,y) = ax^2+by^2 \]Is a distribution because \(a\) and \(b\) are not inputs.
I get it.
Like ax^2 + bx + c would that be a distribution as well?
Yeah
Now, let's talk about the simplest probability distribution, The Bernoulli trial
alright
A Bernoulli trail is just an event that either happens or does not happen. The probability that it happens is \(p\) The probability that it doesn't happen is \(1-p\).
Clearly is must either happen or not happen because \((p)+(1-p) = 1\)
The next, more complicated distribution is a binomial distribution. When you have \(n\) Bernoulli trials, the binomial distribution tells you the probability that \(k\) of the trials succeed or happen.
So, an example of a Bernoulli trial is a coin flip. \(p=1/2\) and \(1-p=1/2\).
A binomial distribution would tell us the probability we get exactly 7 heads if we flipped 10 coins.
The formula for a binomial distribution is: \[ f(k) = \binom nk p^k(1-p)^{n-k} \]
First of all, are you familiar with this notation \[ \binom nk \]?
I am not.
\[ \binom nk = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!} \]Are you familiar with factorials, like \(5!\)
I've seen them before, but I do I am not familiar with those either...
It's an algebra 2 concept.
We'll have to teach you that later on, let's stick to normal distributions for now.
5! = 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 120 is it just that?..
Yes.
So \[ f(k) = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}p^k(1-p)^{n-k} \]
Okay, here is a sample problem. You flip a coin 5 times. What is the probability you get heads exactly 3 times?
Want me to do it as an example, or are you up to attempting it?
Do it as an example, first.. so I can learn how it's done.
Then afterwards i'll attempt one
Okay so the key here is that flipping a coin is a Bernoulli trial. Success is defined as getting heads, and the probability of that is \(p=1/2\). We repeat this trials a total of \(n=5\) times. We are looking for success for exactly \(k=3\) times.
using our formula: \[ f(3) = \binom 53\left(\frac 12\right)^3\left (1-\frac 12 \right)^{5-3} \]
f(3) = 5! / 3!(5-3)! 1/2^3 (1-1/2)^5-3
\[ \binom 53 = \frac{5!}{3!(5-3)!}=\frac{5\cdot 4}{2}=10 \]
f(3) = 120/12 (1/2)^3 (-1/2)^2 f(3) = 10 x 0.125 x (-0.25) ?..
(0.25)* forgot mb
That negative sign is wrong though
\(1-1/2=1/2\)
Oh, sorry, i thought it was 1/2 -1, read it wrong.. so f(3) =0.3125 ?
Yep, also written as \(5/16\)
Alright, I believe I understand it.
Here is a tip. When I was your age I got really used to changing fractions into decimals and changing square roots into decimals. Resist the urge to do that. Keep things as fractions and as radicals. That keeps things exact for as long as necessary.
I was using a calculator.. but in fraction form 10 x 1/8 x 1/4 10/32 5/16
Now for a test problem. Suppose you roll \(8\) dice. What is the probability that \(5\) of the dice land on \(2\).
Think you can do this one?
First step is to identify the bernoulli trial.
5/8 of the dice land on 2?..
k = 2?..
Yes. Also the other 3 dice don't land on 2 obviously
No, \(k\neq 2\)
First of all, what is the Bernoulli trial here?
p = 5/8 right?
I'm a bit lost..
The Bernoulli trial here is "a die lands on 2"
How many times is the trial done? How many times are we saying it succeeds?
What is the probability this trial succeeds just once?
A die has \(6\) sides. And \(2\) is on only one of those sides.
1/6 chances.. 1/6 x 5/8 then?
Hint: It is a binomial distribution.
You have identified \(p=1/6\) but what about \(n\) and \(k\)?
would k become 1/6 x 5/8 then? 1/8 that 2 is the number on the dice?
\(n\) and \(k\) must be natural numbers (not fractions) for it to be a binomial distribution.
Suppose you roll \(8\) dice. What is the probability that \(5\) of the dice land on \(2\).
\(k=5\)
would n be 2 then?
\(n=8, k=5, p=1/6\)
oh.
Does that not make sense?
Not really.
I understand that 5 and 8 is from 5/8 correct?..
Okay think of each die as a B trial. Success is if it lands on 2. Since we roll 8 dice, that is 8 total trials. Wanting 5 die on 2 means we want 5 successes.
Oh! That makes sense.
Okay the calculation isn't important here.
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%288+choose+5%29%281%2F6%29%5E5+%281-1%2F6%29%5E%288-5%29 However it is really low probability. Less than half of a percent. You can do this 1000 times and only get it to happen 4 times.
Okay
Let's try one more.
alright
Suppose that a college class is 65% female and 35% male. Then 6 people are randomly put into a study group. What is the probability that the group has 4 girls.
k = 4 n = 6
right?
Yes
Hm, what would p be then.. 65/100 ?
Yes.
so.. 6! /4! (6-4)! (65/100)^4 (1-65/100)^2 720/ 48 (17.85%) (0.35)^2 15(17.85/100)(0.1225)
52479/160000 is the probability, if i did that correctly.
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=%286+choose+4%29%2865%2F100%29%5E4+%281-65%2F100%29%5E%286-4%29
It's about 32 percent.
Yeah, I did correctly then.
These problems are not tough when you say exactly 4 girls or exactly 5 dice
What if I said "at least 4 girls" for example
You would have to do k=4, k=5, and k=6, then add those probabilities up.
So basically k >= 4
with the limit 4 <= k <= 6
So, the formula for a for the number of successes that are less than or equal to \(k\) is given by: \[ S_k = \sum_{i=0}^k\binom nk p^k(1-p)^{n-k} \]
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