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Further Maths Question! D: I have to prove by induction that f(x)=(e^x)*sin(x) implies (f(x))^n) = (2^(n/2))*(e^x)*sin(x+(n*pi)/2) So far I tried to say: f(x)^n , when n = 1 is equal to (e^x)*sin(x) on one side, and on the other side is....(here's the problem) f(x)^1 = 2^(1/2)*(e^x)*sin(x+ pi/4) = 2^(1/2)*(e^x)*(cos(x)*sin(pi/4)+sin(x)*cos(pi/4)) = 2^(1/2)*(e^x)*(2^(1/2)/2)*(cosx+sinx) which leads me to (e^x)*(sinx+cosx) This can't be right, cause sinx+cosx cant be the same as sin(x). Where did I go wrong? Thanks
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sorry, logs kick my butt.
this is what calculators are made for. i agree with ehuman
I see where I did go wrong, \[f^n (x) \neq [f(x)]^n\] it means the nth differential of \[f(x)\]. eg: \[f^1(x) = f^\prime (x)\]
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