would the derivative of (x^2/a^2 + y^2/b^2=1) be x^2+y^2=0
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
i am doing implicit differentiation
OpenStudy (anonymous):
derivative with respect to \(x\)?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes
OpenStudy (anonymous):
start with
\[\frac{2x}{a^2}+\frac{2y}{b^2}y'=0\] then solve for \(y'\)
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ok but my professor said we can use the constant multiple rule. how would that apply
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
i am not sure what "constant multiple" rule means, but if it means \((cf)'=cf'\) then that is why the \(a^2\) and \(b^2\) stay in the denominator since
\[\frac{x^2}{a^2}=\frac{1}{a^2}\times x^2\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
rule is [cf(x)]'=cf'
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@satellite73 ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
what do i do after i have solved for y' but still have the a^2 and b^2
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes they are still there
they are just number, like 9 and 25 for example
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
subtract \(\frac{2x}{a^2}\) from both sides, then multiply both sides by \(\frac{b^2}{2y}\)
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes i know i got the answer. but what am i supposed to do with the constants?