true or false :If f has a local maximum at a, then f'(a)=0
f could have a rel max at x = a but f ' (a) will not be 0. f ' (a) could be undefined and yet a will be a rel max.
so this is false. f'(a) can't equal 0 because f already has a as a local max?
It is false becuase f ' (a) doesnt have to equal 0, it can be undefined.
because*
It could be f ' (a) = 0, but not a guarantee.
ah ok ,f'(a) is not definitively equal to zero
correct. An example would be the function y = 3 - /x/ This function has a rel max at x = 0, but f ' (0) is NOT 0. It is undefined at x = 0.
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Look at the graph of y = 3 - /x/. You can clearly see that the function has a rel max at x = 0. But f ' (o) is NOT 0. It is undefined at x = 0 becuase it has a "sharp corner".
oh ok I get it ^.^!
Thank You!!!!
You're welcome.
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