prove that (2n)!/n!^2 is an even integer for n>0
Use induction. First show it's true for n = 1 Then show that if (2n)!/n!^2 is even, then (2(n+1))!/(n+1)!^2 must be even
how about using binomial coefficients?
how u would use induction to show it must be true (2n+2)!/(n+1)!^2
Try to rewrite (2k+2)! and (k+1)! as blah*blah*(2k)! and (k+1)*k! respectively I would let you try to figure the blah blah out.
((2k+2)*(2+1) *2k! )/(k+1)*k!
((2k+2)*(2k+1) *2k! )/(k+1)*k!
and what does it give us?
by induct that one part is even.
something*even=still an even number
also you forgot the square part.
\[\frac{(2k+2)(2k+1) \cdot (2k)!}{(k+1)^2 (k!)^2}=\frac{(2k+2)(2k+1)}{(k+1)^2} \cdot \frac{(2k)!}{(k!)^2} \] But we really didn't even need that induction step. Like we could have looked at that other factor that contains the factor 2, but whateves...either way.
im kind of confused
how would the inductive step look because I'm still confused? So assume that the equation is true then we have to proof that (2(k+1))!/(k+1)!^2 is true?
Yes. (2(k+1))!=(2k+2)!=(2k+2)*(2k+1)*(2k)! [(k+1)!]^2=[(k+1)*k!]^2=(k+1)^2*[k!]^2
but then we still don't know that even is multiplied by the integer
You can play with the expression if you want to convince yourself it is an integer.
Re-write the top and the bottom so you see the bottom stuff cancel out.
sorry for so many questions, but i don't see how. we have to leave \[\frac{(2k)!}{(k!)^2}\] alone because thats our induction so we are left with \[\frac{ (2k+2)(2k+1) }{(k+1)(k+1) }\] and the only way i can think of simplifying that is \[4-\frac{2}{k+1}\] but we are still left with k+1
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