What's the derivative of the factorial function? y=x!
My suspicion is that the derivative of the factorial function is itself. However I'm not really that sure about the whole gamma function nonsense. Here's my rationale: \[n!=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-x}dx\] \[\frac{ d }{ dn } (n!)=\frac{ d }{ dn } ( \int\limits_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-x}dx)=n \int\limits_{0}^{\infty} x^{n-1} e^{-x}dx=n*(n-1)!=n!\] But then things change, since if you actually plug in a value it seems like there could be a problem with the n-1 in the integral.
I think things get a little more complicated than that.\[\large \frac{ d }{ dn } (n!)=\frac{ d }{ dn } \int\limits\limits_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-x}dx= \int\limits\limits_{0}^{\infty} \color{red}{x^{n}} e^{-x}\color{red}{\ln x}\;dx\]I can't really make sense of all this. But I think that's what our derivative is giving us, yes?
Yes, you're completely right haha. What a rookie mistake on my part. >_>
Maybe it's easier if we look at a more general integral version. \[\frac{ n! }{ t^{n+1} }=\int\limits_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-tx}dx\] and then take the derivative of that or something. Or actually if we use integration by parts can we solve the original one?
I'm just sorta having fun here, there's actually a really quick easy way to derive this formula if you're interested.
But I don't know how to find the derivative of it though, that's another problem altogether.
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