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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Integrate please

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\LARGE \int\limits_0^{2 \pi} e^{\cos \theta} \cos (\sin \theta) d \theta\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I tried to use the property that \[\LARGE \int\limits_0^{2a} f(x)dx=2 \int\limits_0^a f(x)dx\] if it is an even function..so it is..so I ended up with \[\LARGE 2\int\limits_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos \theta} \cos(\sin \theta)\] Using property again, \[\LARGE 2 \int\limits_{0}^{\pi} e^{-\cos \theta} \cos(\sin \theta)\] now we can add the above 2 but I don't think that's gonna help :( just an attempt.

OpenStudy (isaiah.feynman):

Open study won't show the eqautions well.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

http://i.imgur.com/XqbtxG2.png

OpenStudy (dumbcow):

i have a hunch this cant be done ...i know e^cos doesnt have an anti-derivative

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the answer is 2pi confirmed by WF

OpenStudy (dumbcow):

sorry i meant there doesnt exist an indefinite integral with elementary functions

OpenStudy (dumbcow):

@Loser66 that is the indefinite integral which is not nice, but the definite integral from 0 to 2pi is indeed 2pi as its just the area under the curve

OpenStudy (dumbcow):

@INeedhelpPlease? not sure what you want, all you can do is approximate area under curve and show it converging to 2pi

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@hartnn

OpenStudy (anonymous):

That would be a messy integral for sure, what level calculus are you in?Just to point something out, you can't pull out a constant from your limits of integration. That concept would be true if the 2 was in front of the function, but you would be changing the integral by removing it from the limits.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I can.

hartnn (hartnn):

write cos (sin t) as e^(i sin t)+ e^(-i sin t) /2

hartnn (hartnn):

what did you try ?

hartnn (hartnn):

got e^(cos t + isin t) + e^(cos t - i sin t) ??? thrn put z = cost +i sin t 1/z = cos t - i sin t e^z + e^1/z

hartnn (hartnn):

hmm, actually e^1/z will not be integrable

hartnn (hartnn):

its 0 to pi, right ? so, e^(cos t - i sin t ) ----> e^ (- cos t - i sin t ) = e^ -(cos t + i sin t) = e^-z now thats integrable

hartnn (hartnn):

you know i have used this property there, right ? integral a to b f(x) dx = integral a to b f(a+b-x) dx

hartnn (hartnn):

kuch samaj aaya ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

arre ek min :|

OpenStudy (anonymous):

maine bhi to use kiya wahi a+b-x but not in starting after using even one?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i wrote my attemmpt in beginning btw

hartnn (hartnn):

what ? didn't get u ... yes, you used it there, but it didn't help much but it helped for e^1/z to get e^-z instead

OpenStudy (anonymous):

2pi aa raha hai?

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