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Mathematics 8 Online
OpenStudy (perl):

(Ancient chinese problem) A band of 17 pirates stole a sack of gold coins , when they tried to devide the fortune into equal portions , 3 coins remained .In the ensuring brawl over this time an equal division left 10 coins . Again an argument developed in which another pirate was killed . but now the total fortune was evenly distributed among the survivor . what was the last number of coins that could have been stolen ?

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

ughhh its the same qs :| ok type the equations

OpenStudy (perl):

x = 3 mod 17 x = 10 mod 16 x = 0 mod 15 ?

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

ok lets do it without using chinese

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

ok thats right.. now since gcd(17,16,15)=1 use chinese

OpenStudy (perl):

why?

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

without chinese ok cool :)

OpenStudy (perl):

no, i mean, what is the chinese remainder. please teach

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

we did chinese in last problem already, so lets do it without chinese so that we dont need to prove chinese remainder theorem here

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

take last congruence, x = 0 mod 15 => x = 15k

OpenStudy (perl):

well i saw the solution already, but whats the logic behind chinese

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

you want to know the logic behind chinese ? or the solution to this problem, w/o using chinese ? :) cuz u were asking for a solution w/o chinese in earlier post...

OpenStudy (perl):

i dont understnad this pellet

OpenStudy (perl):

i am frustrated as heck

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

you deserve to :o

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

perl ok lets solve it using chinese (to intruduce u chinese thm ) then prove it so u cud see the logic of it k ??

OpenStudy (perl):

ok

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

ok so u got the three equations x = 3 mod 17 x = 10 mod 16 x = 0 mod 15 sice gcd(17,16,15)= 1 u can apply chinese thm

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

now u got c1=3 c2=10 c3=0

OpenStudy (perl):

ok

OpenStudy (perl):

whats teh chinese remainder theorem?

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

nw u need to convert it to m x =1 mod n formulla ok ?

OpenStudy (perl):

why?

OpenStudy (perl):

sorry i ask a lot of questions

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

cuz if gcd(a,n)=1 ,then the linear congruence ax=b(mod n) has a unique sol modulo n then congruence ax=1 mod n has a unique solution this is called (multiplicasive) inverse of a modulo n

OpenStudy (perl):

why does it need to be a unique solution

OpenStudy (perl):

you keep saying unique solution, is this significant

OpenStudy (ikram002p):

lol know wat thats not me who saying its the thm check it in google :P

OpenStudy (perl):

why do we need to change to mx = 1 mod n?

OpenStudy (perl):

do you have a number theory book i can read

OpenStudy (perl):

youre terrible at explaining this ,

OpenStudy (perl):

whats next >

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