Need help with Trig Identities (1-tan(x))/(1-cot(x))=-tan (x)
What is your question?
it didnt show up?
its (1-tan(x))/(1-cot(x)0=-tan(x)
sorry there shouldnt b a zero after cot (x) it was suppose to b a bracket
So the fraction can be rewritten as: $$ \frac{1-tan(x)}{1-cot(x)} = \frac{1-\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}}{1- \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}} $$
Now multiply top and bottom by $$sin(x) \cdot cos(x)$$
$$\frac{1-\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}}{1- \frac{cos(x)}{sin(x)}} \cdot \frac{sin(x)cos(x)}{sin(x)cos(x)}$$
cant draw it to me cuz i cant see how ur doing that
y do u have to multiply it sin x * cos x
Because now the equation becomes: $$ \frac{sin(x)cos(x) - sin^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x) - cos^2(x)} $$
oh ok i see how u got there
now what do u do
The equation can be written as $$\frac{sin(x)(cos(x) - sin(x))}{cos(x)(sin(x) - cos(x))}$$
what happened to the squares? how did u get rid of them?
I pulled out a $$ sin(x) $$ from the top, and a $$cos(x)$$ from the bottom Notice that if you distribute them, you will get back $$\frac{sin(x)cos(x) - sin^2(x)}{sin(x)cos(x) - cos^2(x)}$$
w8 then shouldnt it be \[\frac{ 1*\cos(x)-\sin(x) }{ \sin(x)*1-\cos(x) }\]
if u take factor out sin (x) and cos (x)
Well yes, it's the same thing without the 1's
ok
You *could*, but then that would defeat the purpose of multiplying the fraction by $$sin(x)cos(x)$$ in the first place
So, now we can rewrite the fraction as : $$\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)} \cdot \frac{(cos(x) - sin(x))}{(sin(x) - cos(x))}$$
oh ok
And we know that $$\frac{sin(x)}{cos(x)}$$ is $$tan(x)$$
So the fraction is: $$tan(x) \cdot \frac{cos(x) - sin(x)}{sin(x) - cos(x)}$$
oh ok then u can cancel out cos x-sin x/sin x-cos x which will give u -1
oh w8 no
Well, you can't cancel, because when you have a plus or minus, you can't cancel. You have to treat the top and bottom as one whole entity.
If you give me a minute, I can look up the identity required, but I know you can turn the second fraction into -1.
yea
Uggh. This is going to bug me. I know it's negative one, but I forget why.
i got it up to cosx(sinx)-1+sinx(cos x)
but i think that wrong
Oh... duh. Yeah. Just like if you had: $$\frac{(4-7)}{(7-4)} = \frac{-3}{3} = -1$$ This works the same way.
So the top and bottom will always be the same value, but will have different signs. Therefore, is will always be negative one.
it*
i dont got how to do get that with this
wat.
how do u get -1 with (cos x-sin x)/(sin x-cos x)
is there an identity for cosx(sinx)?
There is no trig identity or anything. Say cos(x)-sin(x) = some value m Then we can say sin(x)-cos(x) will be -m. This is just like my example above: if $$(7-4) = m$$ then $$m=3$$ We also know that $$(4-7) = -3$$ So you can see that when you flip the numbers in a subtraction problem, you will just get the negative result. $$\frac{(4-7)}{(7-4)} = \frac{-m}{m} = \frac{-3}{3} = -1$$
Sorry if that's not clear enough. It's not anything complicated, I think you're overthinking it.
So: If (a - b) = m. We can conclude that (b - a) will be -m.
so u cant get -1 with out acutally solving the expression u just have to know its -1?
Yeah... one of the unfortunate parts of Calc & Trig.
well that sucks but ok thanks
Haha no problem. Hope it helped.
took 2 pages of writing for this question lol
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