Please, help! Need a hint:) lim x-> a: (ln x - ln a) / (x - a)
lnx - lna = ln(x/a)
L hopsital to the rescue: \[\lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{(\ln x - \ln a)}{ (x - a)} =>\lim_{x \rightarrow a} \frac{(\frac{1}{ x} )}{ (1)}\] put x=a now :)
lol, using the derivative of ln(x) to define the derivative of ln(x) is not sound practice.
let x-a = h, then a = x-h ln(x) - ln(x-h) ------------ h ln(x/(x+h)) ----------- ; doesnt seems at first glance a nicer rendition does it h
can I do it without L'hopital? we are not supposed to know about it. Are there any other ways?
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Fk4C0L-5e3A this walks you thru it pretty well by first principles
thank you, the video is good, but I'm still confused
on what point?
that x is approching not 0 or infinity but unknown a
do you know how to find the derivative of ln(x) using the definition of derivative?
let x = a+h and you will see that its the same setup
\[f'(x)=\lim_{x \rightarrow a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\]
\[\lim_{x\to a}\frac{ln(x)-ln(a)}{x-a}\] lets x=a+h \[\lim_{a+h\to a}\frac{ln(a+h)-ln(a)}{a+h-a}\] \[\lim_{h\to o}\frac{ln(a+h)-ln(a)}{h}\]
\[\lim_{h\to o}\frac{ln(a+h)-ln(a)}{h}\] \[\lim_{h\to o}\frac1hln(a/a+h/a)\] \[\lim_{h\to o}\frac1hln(1+\frac{h}{a})\] they say, let v = h/a, h=va; as h to 0, v to 0 \[\lim_{v\to o}\frac1{va}ln(1+v)\] \[\lim_{v\to o}\frac1{a}ln[(1+v)^{1/v}]\] \[\frac1a~ln[~\lim_{v\to o}~(1+v)^{1/v}]\]
thank you,I finally understood why we do x = a+h (in order to have ->0)
:) youre welcome
if its prior knowledge that the inner ln limits to e, then we are set; other than that we would have to prolly prove that the iner ln does go to e :)
and at the end I just leave 1/a ln and count only the part in []?
at the end, you either already know that the inside of the ln[] goes to "e"; and that ln[e] = 1 ; or you would have to prove that it does go to e.
it goes to e because of the second principle?
in other words; if you already know by prior work that:\[\lim_{v\to0}(1+v)^{1/v}=e\] your set, otherwise you would prolly have to prove this limits to e
I mean, it =1 because of 2nd principle
not sure what a second principle is in relation to this.
ln(e) = 1 by properties of logarithms
yeah, I got it finally, thank you!
oh good!, cause i was getting a little brain tied trying to proof it limited to e lol
i gotta get home now, so good luck and all
thank you! wish you all the best!!
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