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is every finite group abelian or not?
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please help me
true
that means every finite group abelian
Yes.
Thank you
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wait That's false, or at least incomplete. For instance, cyclic groups of prime order are counterexamples. I believe those are the only counterexamples, though, so the following should be true: A finite _nonabelian_ group in which every proper subgroup is abelian is not simple.
okay thank you so much :)
how do you define abelean?
who me or Mash?
lol, id hope you both define it the same way ... or this math stuff may get pretty confusing
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