Let A be a diagonalizable matrix with every eigenvalue of A either 0 or 1. Prove that A is idempotent (A^2=A).
This is what I've got so far: \[\text{By the definition of an eigenvalue, there exists nonzero vector } \vec x \text{ such that} \]\[A\vec x =\lambda \vec x \]\[\text{But }\lambda =\lambda^2 \text{ for all }\lambda=0,1. \text{ Hence, }\]\[A\vec x =\lambda^2 \vec x\]\[A\vec x=\lambda \left( \lambda \vec x \right)\]
\[\text{Multiplying both sides by A on the \left}\]\[AA\vec x = A\lambda^2 \vec x\]\[\text{But }\lambda^2 = \lambda \text{ so we have}\]\[A^2 \vec x=A\lambda \vec x\]
\[A^2 \vec x=\lambda A \vec x\]\[\text{But }A \vec x=\lambda \vec x \text{ so we have}\]\[A^2 \vec x=\lambda (\lambda \vec x)\]\[A^2 \vec x=\lambda^2 \vec x\]\[A^2 \vec x=\lambda \vec x\] Hence A is nilpotent
Does that suffice?
Correction: idempotent
D with eigenvalues on the main diagonal yeah
\[A^2=P^{-1}DP\]
er D^2
yeah that's much easier... I have no experience doing a lot of proofs
hate going about it the long way when there's a simple solution
thanks for your help
your prof asks you to prove it?
yep
Prove theorem, it means you are junior math major in university?
i'll minor in math
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