Having some trouble with the Biot-Savart Law.
So I have with toroid (see figure). I'm working through an example that proves the magnetic field of a toroid is circumferential at all points. I know that the Biot-Savart law says \[\mathbf{B}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\int\frac{\mathbf{I}\times\mathbf{\hat{u}}}{u^2}dl'\]Where \(\mathbf{u}=\mathbf{r}-\mathbf{r}'\) is the separation vector (cursive r in the figure). Griffiths then says that the biot Savart law gives for this case\[d\mathbf{B}=\frac{\mu_0}{4\pi}\frac{\mathbf{I}\times\mathbf{\hat{u}}}{u^3}dl'\]Where does this come from?
i think he just derive the integral
I don't understand why \(u^2\rightarrow u^3\) in the denominator. If you take the derivative of the integral, shouldn't it just be like "removing the integral sign"?
i think so too
@experimentX
Remember the first form above is where r is the unit vector acting towards a point. So, for a vector the unit vector is defined as a vector divided by its magnitude as such the unit vector will be the full displacement vector divided by its magnitude. r^ = r/ IrI So that's where the u^3 comes from Hope this helps :)
The u^3 in the differential is a misprint. It should be u^2 as was originally surmised.
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