Question

@FutureMathProfessor

Answer 1

Yes

Answer 2

2 (mod 2) = 0

Answer 3

If 2 (mod 2) = 0, then how does 2 (mod 1) = 0? Wouldn't 2 (mod 1) DNE?

Answer 4

chocolate

Answer 5

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=2+%28mod+2%29+ <-----

Answer 6

by definition,

x = y (mod k)

=>

k | (x-y)

Answer 7

thats the oly definition we need to remember in modular arithmetic

Answer 8

2 (mod 3) however = 3

Answer 9

^Wouldn't 2 (mod 3) simply be 2?

Answer 10

Since the clock doesn't reset till 3

Answer 11

@FutureMathProfessor Exactly :P

Answer 12

thats right

2 (mod 3) = 2

2 (mod 3) = -1 also

Answer 13

^

Answer 14

Couldn't 2 (mod 3) be -4 as well?

Answer 15

ok, say

x = 2(mod 3)

=>

3 | (x-2)

=>

x-2 = 3k

x = 3k+2

Answer 16

k =all integers

Answer 17

just refer to the definition :

x = y (mod k)

=>

k | (x-y

Answer 18

I feel like a good example similar to this is, what is x?

0=sin(pi*x)

Answer 19

thats a good example, touches periodic thingy :)

Answer 20

x [- z