prove integral
\[\int\limits_{0}^{\pi} xf(sinx)dx= \frac{ \pi }{ 2 }\int\limits_{0}^{\pi}f(sinx)dx\]
use substitution u=pi-x
its quite frustrating..
i get to: \[2\int\limits_{0}^{\pi} xf(sinx)dx=0\] and i'm stuck
\[\sin (\pi-x)=\sin x\\t=\pi-x\] \[-\int _\pi^0(\pi-t)f(\sin t)dt=\int_0^\pi\pi f(\sin t)-\int_0^\pi t f(\sin t)=\int_0^\pi t f(\sin t)\] \[\pi \int_0^\pi f(\sin t)=2\int_0^\pi t f(\sin t)\] \[\frac{\pi}{2}\int_0^\pi f(\sin t)=\int_0^\pi t f(\sin t)\]
why use: \[−\int\limits_{\pi}^{0}(π−t)f(sint)dt\]
@Jonask
and t=pi-x, so how is this correct
its a substitution notice that \[dx=-dt\] also \[x=\pi-t\] ,if \[x=0,t=\pi\\if \\x=\pi ,t=0\]substitute this into \[\int _0^\pi x f(\sin x)dx\]
i will check this tomorrow again. but i still don't understand how \[−\int\limits\limits_{\pi}^{0}(π−t)f(sint)dt\] helps you
\[\int _0^\pi xf(\sin x)dx=\int _\pi^0(\pi-t)f(\sin t)(-dt)=-\int _\pi^0(\pi-t)f(\sin t)dt\]
jus say what is it that challenges u here,that wich u dnt undrstanf
i get: \[\int\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx=\int\limits_{0}^{\pi}(\pi-t)f(sint)dt\]
@Jonask
thats where i'm stuck
@Jonask help please
t=pi-x dt = -dx do the limits now :- lower limit : x = 0, => t = pi-0 = pi upper limit : x = pi, => t = pi - pi = 0
done
\[\int\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx=-\int\limits\limits_{\pi}^{0}(\pi-t)f(sint)dt\] <=> \[\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx=\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(\pi-t)f(sint)dt\]
<=> \[\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx=\pi\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(f(sint)dt-\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(tf(sint)dt\]
am i doing this right?
yes so far so good
then this is where something goes wrong
add the second integral both sides
\(\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx=\pi\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(f(sint)dt-\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(tf(sint)dt \) add \(\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(tf(sint)dt\) both sides
\[\int\limits\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}xf(sinx)dx+\int\limits\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}tf(sint)dt=\pi\int\limits\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}f(sint)dt\]
and x is not equal to t, right?
Yes, next we use this :- for a definite integral, variable of integration doesnt matter. variable is just dummy. f(x) is same as f(t)
where can i find this property?
\(\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(tf(sint)dt = \int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(xf(sinx)dx \)
usually any course on definite integrals starts wid this property; we can make sense of this property easily. lets see :)
let me put it this way:- \(\int\limits\limits\limits_{0}^{\pi}(tf(sint)dt =F(\pi) - F(0)\) clearly the dummy variable \(t\) is NOT playing any role here. it just disappears in the final result.
see if that satisfies you hmm
hmmm...
nope, don't get it
i'll check my textbook for this property
Also check the attached snapshot from my textbook also :)
oh nice, thanks!
closed
cool :)
thanks again
np.. u wlc :)
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