na please help me with this one to find the solution of the differential equation [(x+1)^2]d^2y/dx^2 + (x+1)dy/dx + y = cos[ln(x+1)]
Homogeneous part: Let t = x+1 --> \(t^2y''+ty'+y =0\) It's an Euler form. Characteristic equation: r^2+1 =0 gives us complex root \(r=\pm i\) so, general solution is \(y_c = C_1cos (lnt)+C_2sin (lnt)\) replace t = x+1, we have \(y_c = C_1cos(ln (x+1) +C_2sin(ln(x+1)\) Partial part: y = t cos (lnt) I think you can step up, right?
yep i can but where does the euler equation form from
I am sorry, it's indicial equation, not characteristic equation
and how is r^2 + 1= 0 the complimentary part's equation giving function
From your original one , after let t = x+1, we get that form, just apply formula
r^2+1 =0 ---> r^2 =-1 ---> r = \(\pm i\)
yea i get that but why will r^2 give us the general solution, where does that come from
That's the step to solve Euler's ODE
yep i get the t^2y'' + ty+ +y = 0 part is by substution, where does the r^2+1 come from
ahh (Y) i'll check it out
how/why is cos{ln(x+1)} equated to zero
ahahahahaha sorry na to bug you that much ^3^)7 i'll just check it out myself
I don't let it = 0. just separate to solve homogeneous part and partial part.
so the substution gives the homogenous part?
for convenient, you should substitute to both.
i shall (Y)
what does (Y) mean in "i shall (Y)"?
it means the thumbs up sign on fb XD so a bit of habit,a bad one i guess
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