Question

Does Bayesian inference differ from frequentist inference in any meaningful quantitative way?

Answer 1

I tried to study the topic a while back. I'm not familiar with the whole Bayesian vs Frequentist debate, but here is how I see things:
1. To calculate the "frequentist" probablity, you divide the number of outcomes that possess a certain property by the total number of outcomes.
2. To calculate the bayesian probablity, you, again, divide the number of outcomes that possess a certain property by the total number of outcomes, using the same very formula.

So, I don't know. Bayesian theorem seems like something you just have to remember to apply when there is some sort of error rate in your sample. I don't even understand why that theorem has got it's own name when it seems to be just a special case of applying probability theory.