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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Help..
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
How can i apply integral test to this
\[\frac{ 1 }{ k( Logk)^{p}}\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
what are the limits ?
2 to infinity ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes..
OpenStudy (anonymous):
\(\large \sum \limits_2^{\infty } \frac{1}{k (\ln k)^p} \) converges \(\iff\) \(\large \int \limits_2^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(\ln k )^p}dk \) is finite
OpenStudy (anonymous):
\(\large \sum \limits_2^{\infty } \frac{1}{k (\ln k)^p} \) diverges \(\iff\) \(\large \int \limits_2^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(\ln k )^p}dk \) is not finite
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
For which p the integral is finite ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
evaluate the right side integral and see when it is finite
OpenStudy (anonymous):
p is greater than 1 ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ln k = u
1/k dk = du
\(\large \int \limits_{\#}^{*} 1/t^p dt\)
analyze this
OpenStudy (anonymous):
\(\large \frac{t^{-p+1}}{-p+1} \Big|_{\ln 2}^{\infty } \)
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
when p < 1, clearly it diverges
OpenStudy (anonymous):
p =1 also it diverges
p > 1 is when it wud be finite,
OpenStudy (anonymous):
let me know if u want discuss the reasoning behind these 3 conclusions
OpenStudy (anonymous):
why at p=1 diverges? because its result becomes 0/0 then the integral is undefined ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
nope
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
\(\large \int \limits_{\ln 2}^{\infty} 1/t dt = \ln t \Big|_{\ln 2}^{\infty} = \ln \infty - **** = \infty \)
OpenStudy (anonymous):
so, p = 1 also diverges
OpenStudy (anonymous):
thank you..
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