Verify that the following are tautologies by citing the appropriate previous result. Do not make truth tables.
Hmmm, are you going to draw your work like you always do?
just 1.4.15 I've done 1.4.16 so anyway if I draw the truth tables I have seen the column of T's but I can't do that on 1.4.15
and the cite appropritate previous results is driving me nuts.
I feel like the problem wants you to cite the theorems that the textbook establishes
I've noticed that a. is a double negation b and c are demorgans d and e is divisibility
the last one is contrapositive.
you can't cite problem 1.4.12 for f?
o_O what is F and I wasn't assigned 1.4.12
wait a second... http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Material_implication_(rule_of_inference)
I think you are supposed to use various properties of Boolean Algebra, no?
what is that? D: like communitative associative law?
Yes.
maybe from this?
I think F is a combination of material implication/rule of inference, and de morgan's law after negation
ok so how do I verify a tautology if I have to use those laws?
Yes, you can use the double negative property to show that \[ \neg(\neg P)\iff P \]Is equivalent to \[ P \iff P \]
Crap what happened to my latex?
so I have to use those laws and show equivalency?
Why can't I see previews either?
I have texmaker
~(p->q) <-> ~(~p v q) Material implication ~(~p v q) <-> (~~p)^(~q) De Morgan's Law (~~p)^(~q) <-> p^(~q) Double Negation
so using demorgans and those laws....
~(~p) <-> p double negation
then apply demorgans to that/
so... ~[~(~P)] <-> ~P
:/
ohhhhh. ~(~P) <-> ~(~P) P <-> P
I did f for you, but I'm not sure if your textbook has the material implication/rule of inference. It should though...
I'm not sure if I'm doing a right... I was just substituting... ~(~P) <-> P ~(~P) <-> ~(~P) P <-> P
@UsukiDoll , are you citing the laws you used?
EEP! ~(~P) <-> P is double negation and then
I was subsituting stuff afterwards....... no good... gotta use demorgans on a
huh?
@______________@
well wio put that ~(~P) <-> P is equilivlent to P <-> P
yeah
the latex on here wasn't working, but I used texmaker to see what it was
maybe ~(~P) <-> P is equilvalent to ~(~P) <-> ~(~P)?
P <-> P and then use a textbook theorem to show it is true
so I can't use ~(~P) <-> ~(~P) ?
Well, I'm not sure why you would complicate things... ~(~P) <-> P is equivalent to P <-> P by double negation and thus is T
not sure which law it is that states that P<->P is a tautology but I'm sure there is a name for it.
did you just subsitute the ~(~P) with the P? for ~(~P) <-> P?
yes, and my justification for that is the double negative
the main problem I see with using the <-> both to express the expression and to show equivalence is that it winds up getting kinda confusing
Since \(x=x\) is a reflexive property of equality, you'd cite the reflexive property of the bi-conditional operator.
If you want to be that rigorous.
<-> is confusing... there are two meanings.. one is biconditional and the other means equilvalent... the one in the book at least for this problem has a biconditional arrow
yeah, my teacher usually uses three bars
P <-> P is A tautology since P has the truth table of T T F F another P would be T T F F P <-> P is T T T T
~P is F F T T ~(~P) is T T F F another ~(~P) is T T F F so ~(~P) <-> ~(~P) is T T T T
yeah - my teacher would probably just let me stop at p<->p since he would consider the fact that that is true trivial
alright 2 down 4 more of those bad boys... luckily b and c are demorgans... and d and e are distributives
so... for b we have... ~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q
maybe it's equilvalent to ahhh screw spelling lol ~P ^ ~Q <-> ~P ^ ~Q
and ~( P V Q) <-> ~( P V Q)
-_- this would be a lot easier if I draw the table slightly. P is T T F F Q is T F T F P V Q is T T T F ~(P V Q) is F F F T another ~(P V Q) is F F F T ~( P V Q) <-> ~( P V Q) is T T T T
~P ^ ~Q <-> ~P ^ ~Q P is T T F F Q is T F T F ~P is F F T T ~Q is F T F T ~P ^ ~Q is F F F T another ~P ^ ~Q is F F F T ~P ^ ~Q <-> ~P ^ ~Q is T T T T
c. ~(P ^ Q) <-> ~P V ~Q so... ~P V ~Q <-> ~P V ~Q ~(P ^ Q) <->~(P ^ Q)
P is T T F F Q is T F T F ~P is F F T T ~Q is F T F T ~P V ~Q is F T T T another ~P V ~Q is F T T T ~P V ~Q <-> ~P V ~Q is T T T T
ugh too sleepy to look over your work; @wio are you there?
P is T T F F Q is T F T F ~P is F F T T ~Q is F T F T (P ^ Q) is T F F F ~(P ^ Q) is F T T T another ~(P ^ Q) is F T T T ~(P ^ Q) <->~(P ^ Q) T T T T
maybe that's how it's supposed to be done?
If it is... then I'll just do D and E on paper since that's 8 rows right there
Aren't you not supposed to use truth tables here?
yeah *facepalm*
arghhhhhhhhhhhhh ...... I know b and c are demorgans...
so a demorgan within a demorgan
just a single de morgan?
b is one demorgan and c is another demorgan
D: curse the instructions! I WISH I COULD USE A TRUTH TABLE!
~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q
yeah, that's just de morgans law one time?
and then c. was the other demorgan c. ~(P ^ Q) <-> ~P V ~Q
@eliassaab
demorgan within a demorgan...................................
Well, de Morgan is used regardless.
but I can't just leave the questions blank...
welll for those one step problems just cite the rule, and for multi step problems just do a mini proof I guess?
b and c are just demorgans... I guess that's the answer?
maybe do something like this? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/358750/prove-the-following-is-a-tautology
Not sure what your teacher wants, but mine usually liked my two column proofs - anythign clear I guess
I wish it was a truth table... that would've been easy
hmmmmmm b and c are demorgans d and e are distributives g is a contra positive
~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q demorgan then another demorgan usage demorgan tautology end result the end
wait the other demorgan is in c... maybe... ~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q Demorgan's law ~(P ^ Q) <-> ~P V ~Q Demorgan's Law
and maybe for c ~(P ^ Q) <-> ~P V ~Q Demorgan's Law ~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q Demorgan's law ???????????????
-.- if that's the case, those things were in front of my face.
@eliassaab
~( P V Q) <-> ~P ^ ~Q Demorgan's law ~(P ^ Q) <-> ~P V ~Q Demorgan's Law These I always remembered as being like a -ve sign in algebra. It "flips" the sign of the inequality (the v becomes ^ and vice versa)
I know that, but it can't be the entire answer right? @wio
It is possible that a tautology can be proven with a single property of Boolean Algebra.
Why would it not be sufficient? Is there some number-of-steps quota you are hoping to reach?
ummm no :/
single property...like 1 line proofs
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