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am i correct?? 1/cosθ+ tan^2θ/cosθ 1 1 + sinθ cos^3θ << sec^3θ
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no u r wrong
how come? then would it be 1+sinθ?
sec ^3(θ)
ok so in numerator we have 1+ tan^2(θ) = sec ^2(θ) and in denominator we have cos (θ) => 1/ cos (θ) = sec (θ) sec ^2(θ) * sec (θ) = sec ^3(θ)
ohhhhhh! i i got the numerator part but i didnt think of 1/cos(θ)= sec(θ) !! thanks a lot (:
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