proof problem - biconditional statement...
latexing in a bit
\[A \subseteq B\] if and only if \[A \backslash B = \emptyset\]
so we have two statements to prove... one would be that if \[a \subseteq b\] then \[A \backslash B = \emptyset\]
so what that is ... I have an a subset of B, but the complement of B written as \[A \backslash B\] is an empty set
subset def.\[\forall x [ x\in A \rightarrow x \in B]\]
I would use \[ A\setminus B = A\cap \overline{B} \]
so x belongs in A and x belongs in b. however... I have \[A \backslash B = [ x: x \in A \land x \notin B]\] but as it said in the problem ... \[A \backslash B = \emptyset\]
meaning no elements
At this point in the game, you have enough in your tool box that you don't have to rely just on definitions.
You can start using set algebra.
\(\color{blue}{\text{Originally Posted by}}\) @UsukiDoll subset def.\[\forall x [ x\in A \rightarrow x \in B]\] \(\color{blue}{\text{End of Quote}}\) This can be changed to \[ \[\forall x [ x \notin A \lor x \in B]\] \]
Since \(p\to q\iff \lnot p \lor q\)
set alg?1
Then finish it off with de Morgan.
argh I'm getting dizzy... after this I'm eating lunch and then finishing the problems from last night. still gotta tackle H.. UGH!
waht the............what if I just want to prove or disprove the statements? there's nothing about alg.
hmm if \[x \in A then x \in B ,x \notin B^c , A∩ B^c =\phi \] if \[ A∩ B^c =\phi , then x \in A .x \notin B^c \rightarrow x \in B , A \subset B\]
?????????????????
I'm dealing with a subset and A\B with an empty set... ak.a... no elements at all
A is a subset of B --> all x belongs to A and B A\B ---> no elements
huh lol nothing :D continue plz...
:O! how would I go on with it?
Use set algebra.
\[ A\setminus B = \emptyset \]This means\[ A\cap \overline{B} = \emptyset \]Now we \(\cup B\) to both sides: \[ (A\cup B) \cap (\overline{B} \cup B) = \emptyset \cup B \]Simplify: \[ (A\cup B) \cap \mathcal U = B \]\[ (A\cup B) = B \]
dang that looked easy... so what about for the second statement? the a \ b = emptyset then the a is a subset of b... how to tackle that?
You can just use definitions for this uglier part.
well a \ b ... there aren't any elements.... how can a be a subset of b... empty set = nothing
If \(A\subseteq B\), then any element in \(A\) or \(B\) must also be in \(B\), so \(A\cup B= B\). If \(A\cup B = B\), then there are no elements in \(A\) which are not also in \(B\), therefore \(A\subseteq B\).
If that isn't rigorous enough, then you have to use definitions to show that \[ A \subseteq B \iff A\cup B = B \]
c rap D:
can't we just disprove this?
like a\b isn't an emptyset oh shi....... then x belongs in a and not b
sounds familiar like the a subset of b but b'
like x belongs to a implies x doesn't belong in b
You want to disprove something that is true?
:S cra..p I shouldn't do that.
Okay about about doing this one direction at a time.
If \(A\subseteq B\) then \(A\setminus B=\emptyset\).
If \(A \subseteq B\) then then \[ \forall x\quad x\in A\to x\in B \]We use \(p \to q \iff \lnot p \lor q\). \[ \forall x\quad x\notin A\lor x\in B \]Next we use \(\forall x P(x) \iff \lnot \exists x \lnot P(x)\)\[ \lnot \exists x\quad \lnot ( x\notin A\lor x\in B) \]We use de Mograns \(\lnot (p\lor q)\iff \lnot p \land \lnot q\)\[ \lnot \exists x\quad x\in A\land x\notin B \]
O_O lots of demorgans going on here XD
I used it once.
oh .-. whew now that's over....I still have to figure out what was going on with the associative law proof from last night.... apparently I have to use the set property but I don't know where to apply it. >:/
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