Use the intermediate value theorem to determine whether the following the equation has a solution or not. If so, then use a graphing calculator to solve the equation. cosx=x Please help me understand this!
From \(-\pi\) to \(\pi\), \(\cos(x)\) ranges from \(-1\) to \(1\) to \(-1\) again.
They probably want you to use this fact.
To be more specific, \(\cos(0) = 1\) and \(\cos(\pi)=0\).
this is so vague that you have the freedom to choose what your value for c is going to be
Then, what would x be approx.?
Indeed, it is very vague and I think it's vague-ness is throwing me off.
Okay, here is another idea. Let \(f(x)=\cos(x)-x\). Use intermediate value theorem to find out if there is any interval where \(f(x)=0\).
that makes it easier, @wio
but you should provide the interval as well
Same as before. \(f(0) = 1\) and \(f(\pi) = -\pi\). We know \(f(x)\) is continuous so it mus go through \(0\).
thank you, that's all folks
Did you use a calculator to come to that conclusion or was that knowledge you knew before hand?
I actually understand trigonometry, so I know certain values of \(\cos(x)\).
wio is a human calculator
I understand trig functions but this problem seems like it requires more than one answer and I'm still so confused.
So you've used the IVT to determine that `yes` a solution exists. The next part is just to use a calculator of some sort to approximate the solution. If you don't have a graphing calculator, use Wolfram as a nice resource.
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