PLease Help!! Does the sequence sin(n) have a convergent subsequence? Please Justify
Every bounded sequence have a convergent sub-sequence...remember that
With that you can construct the proof.
But I'm not sure how to get the subsequence
well... thats a trivial case lol
I'm assuming he wants a non-trivial case. but yes that works too
So it's a rule that sin n = 2*pi*k
but how did you get n=2*pi*k ?
dude... look at what 2 Pi k is for sin
So therefore it oscillates between 1 and -1 as n approaches infinity ?
And isnt bounded therefore diverges ?
The Bolzano-Weierstrass Theorem: Every bounded sequence of real numbers has a convergent subsequence.
I'm assuming n was real
Ohh... n isn't real... then pellet. lol
Well try this: Every sequence has a monotone sub-sequence, and if the sequence is bounded, then then monotone sub-sequence is also bounded and converges.
Alright I get it for this question ... But I'm still confused about the n=2*pi*k .. I dont know what was done with that or how it was gotten.. could you clarify on that please ?
Due to of course all monotonic bounded sequences converging.... that should be a sufficient proof.
But it doesnt have a sub sequence in this case correct ?
The sequence sin(n) is bounded, since -1 ≤ sin(n) ≤ 1 for any value of n. The Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem tells you this must have a convergence subsequence. In general, take any convergent sequence a[n] → L. Then consider any random sequence, probably not convergent, b[n]. Then define the "zipper" of the two to be c[n], where: c[2n] = a[n] c[2n+1] = b[n] Then c[2n] is a convergent subsequence of c[n], since c[2n] = a[n]. Notice how the b[n] could do any sort of whacky thing, and they would not affect this subsequence. So in general, different subsequences can converge to many different things, or diverge, or whatever else -- different kinds of subsequences can "coexist" in a sequence. There are any cases in analysis when a sequence needs to just be well-behaved (e.g. bounded) and then a convergent subsequence must exist. These can be used in other proofs to derive stronger, better theorems.
Ok I get it .. Thanks guys!!! really appreciate the help !!
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