Let \(f: X \rightarrow Y, g: Y \rightarrow Z\) and \(h: Z \rightarrow U\). Prove that for all \(T \in P(U), \bar( h \circ g \circ f)^{-1}(T)=\bar f^{-1}(\bar g^{-1} (\bar h^{-1}(T)))\).
-.- Let \(f: X \rightarrow Y, g: Y \rightarrow Z\) and \(h: Z \rightarrow U\). Prove that for all \(T \in P(U), \bar( h \circ g \circ f)^{-1}(T)=\bar f^{-1}(\bar g^{-1} (\bar h^{-1}(T)))\).
let's see.. why can't I just use the distributive law to solve my iissues? lol that' snot the case
what is \( P(U)\)?
so f has an element x with element y g has an element y with element z and h has an element z with element u...
that's supposed to be POWERSET(U)
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so this is preimage not inverse?
yes ^^
what if we use some lemma.. which states that we let X and Y be nonempty sets and let f: x -> Y be a function... If f is an injection, then there exists a surjection g : y -x such that g o f =Ix If f is a surjection, then there exists an injection g: y ->x such that f o g = Iy ?????
How about this, take \(f\) of both sides. Then take \(g\) of both sides, then take \(h\) of both sides.
so that would be just ... wait do I multiply both sides of f or ?!
\[ f((h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)) = g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)) \]Then\[ (g\circ f)((h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)) = h^{-1}(T) \]
Basically: \[ \color{red}{(h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)}= \color{blue}{f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)))} \]Then\[ f[\color{red}{(h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)}] = f[\color{blue}{f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)))}] \]The RHS simplifies to: \[ f[(h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)] = g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)) \]
...
wait how did you get it so fast? like when did the ff^-1 become just g^-1h^-1 T?
\[ f(f^{-1}(\ldots )) = \ldots \]
In this case \(\ldots = g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T))\)
so does the ff^-1 cancel out?
?! what properties of functions did you use?!
This went too quickly... so what did you do for take f on both sides?
Start out with \(T=T\)
:S T = T is this from a property or a lemma or letting T equal to \[f((h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)) = g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)) \]
No, \(T=T\) is something that we know is true.
Thus we can start with it.
Actually, maybe we should start with: \[ h(g(f(T))) = (h\circ g\circ f)(T) \]Does this at least make sense?
Divide by 0.
Now, we put \(h^{-1}(\ldots)\) on both sides: \[ h^{-1}[h(g(f(T)))] = h^{-1}((h\circ g\circ f)(T)) \]Cant we use \(h^{-1}(h(\ldots)) = \ldots\)
@primeralph divide by 0?! really I thought that's undefined already?!
@UsukiDoll Do you understand what I'm doing?
we're starting from h first... then take the h^-1 on both sides
We get \[ g(f(T)) = h^{-1}((h\circ g\circ f)(T)) \]
h^-1 (h) just disappears... from the left side... :/
Eventually you get \[ T = f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}((h\circ g\circ f)(T)))) \]
Let \(X = (h\circ g\circ f)(T)\) then \(T = (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(X)\)
Substitute and get: \[ (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(X) = f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(X))) \]
so first we're taking h^-1 both sides... then maybe g^-1 both sides and f^-1 both sides to finally get to where we are
Yes.
And... I probably should not have used \(X\) because it is already defined here... so instead...
use ... B?
Change \(X\) to be \(T\). Change \(T\) to be some \(A\in \mathcal P(X)\)
That way instead of ending with \(X\) you end with \(T\)s, which is less confusing.
Do you understand it?
if I do it backwards starting with h^-1 on both sides then I do...but for forward... should I take f^-1 on both sides first followed by g^-1 and then h^-1
You technically can't do it forwards, because you would be assuming the thing you're trying to prove is true.
However, sometimes doing this forwards gives us an idea.
Sometimes, I feel you won't be satisfied unless I write a verbatim proof.
oh I see I'll start on the left hand side of the equation on this one... doing h^-1 then g^-1 and f^-1
on both sides of course ^^
either way since professor I love to grade harsh is the teach....no matter what I do I still have some points knocked out
To be more rigorous, you'd start with \[ \forall A\in \mathcal P(X) \quad h(g(f(A))) = (h\circ g\circ f)(A) \]
alright...hmm I wonder if any definitions were used...theorem 5.5.11 Let X and Y be sets. Let f: X->Y be a function, and let g be an inverse of f. Then the following hold... both f and g are bijections, f is an inverse of g, g is the unique inverse of f. ... uniqueness of the inverse..........
First we show:\[ \begin{array}{rccc} \forall T\in \mathcal P(U) \quad& (h\circ g\circ f)(A) &=& T \\ & (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}((h\circ g\circ f)(A)) &=& (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T)\\ & A &=& (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T) \end{array} \]Next we show: \[\begin{array}{rccc} \forall T\in \mathcal P(U) \quad& (h\circ g\circ f)(A) &=& T \\ & h(g(f(A))) &=& T \\ & h^{-1}(h(g(f(A)))) &=& h^{-1}(T) \\ & g(f(A)) &=& h^{-1}(T)\\ & g^{-1}(g(f(A))) &=& g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T))\\ & f(A) &=& g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T))\\ & f^{-1}(f(A)) &=& f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)))\\ & A &=& f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T)))\\ \end{array} \]Then with we combine:\[ (h\circ g\circ f)^{-1}(T) = A = f^{-1}(g^{-1}(h^{-1}(T))) \]
Please tell me you get it...
back...my pc crashed right as I was about to type something
ok
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