Photo of question inside
What an I not seeing....
The error is from the first line. Let u=cos(x) not 1/cos(x)..
Bwhy though?
That's the proper substitution.
What rule says I cant choose sec ?
hmm antiderivative of that is ln cosx + c
Oh they used by parts. I have never used integration by parts to solve that integral only u substitution.
oops forgot -ln cos x + C
@jim_thompson5910
integration by parts is really unnecessary for this problem
@UsukiDoll I AGREE!
Yes I can do it another way but I want to know where the.mistake is
here's the problem the integral of tanx has it's own antiderivative identity...
so doing this by parts or even converting tanx into sinx /cosx is really whyy just why
what's that supposed to mean?
Im.playing
there's an anti derivative integral version of tanx .. works fine by itself... why this person even convert .. SO DUMB!
if someone really gives me that as an answer.. I will fail them!
Everyone keeps saying it's not the way to do or it.....but why is this wrong.
The problem asks to find the problem
When I learned integration by parts my prof said let U=LIATE (Logarithm, Inverse trig function, Algebraic, Trig function, Exponential function). So @zzr0ck3r take u to be tanx du = sec^2x, dv=dx, v=x Try that!
Again, the question asks to find the problem with this proof.......
What proof? I thought it said identify the error. :P
yeahhh
The question shows what I showed, and it says find the error and fix it
oh I'll fix it alright ... |dw:1392943626723:dw|
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