An iid sample \(X_1,\dots\,X_n\) have pdf \(f(x;\theta)=\theta x^{\theta-1},\,\,\,\, 0
It suggests showing \(-\log X_i\)~EXP\((1,\theta)\), then \(-\sum_{i=1}^n \log X_i\)~GAM\((n, 1/\theta)\), which I did and is ok. The next step though says \[E\left[\left(-\sum_{i=1}^n \log X_i\right)^{-1}\right]=\left(\frac{1}{\theta}\right)^{-1}\frac{\Gamma(n-1)}{\Gamma(n)}=\frac{\theta}{n-1}\] I understand that the expected value for GAM\((n, 1/\theta)\) is \(n/\theta\), so I'm not sure how they got the line above?? Do we apply a 1-1 transformation Y=1/X, and then calculate the expectation by definition, or is there a faster way to do this?
Well a transformation Y = 1/W, where W = \(-\sum\)log Xi, I should say.
The question is very unclear.
How is it unclear?
@wio
iid: independent and identically distributed, pdf: probability density function MLE: maximum likelihood estimator is this better?
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