Why is it when you integrate 1/(1+u^2) du, you would get tan^-1+C? How did it come to that?
let u=tantheta du=...??
it actually came from the fact that d/dx arctan(x) = 1/(x^2+1)
@sourwing Is that just a known rule or something?
I don't know what you meant by known rule, but derivative of arctan(x) is derived using implicit differentiation
and the inverse function theorem
If possible, could someone the whole process of getting the derivative of arctanx?
if y = arctan(x), then x = tan(y), then using implicit differentiation, 1 = sec^2(y) dy/dx dy/dx = 1/cos^2(x) = 1/(x^2 + 1) Because d/dx (arctanx) = 1/(x^2 + 1), this is why the integral of 1/(x^2+1) is arctan(x).
\[\sec^2(y)=\tan^2(y)+1=x^2+1\]
also, you need the inverse function theorem in order to make sure \[\frac{dy}{dx}\] exists
yeah, I left a lot of details out. But the goal is i'm trying to explain that why integral of arctan(x) is 1/(x^2+1)
you mean the derivative of arctan(x) is 1/(x^2+1)
that too :DD
\[\sin^2 \theta + \cos ^2 \theta =1 \] divide both sides by cos^2(theta) \[\tan^2 \theta + 1 = \sec^2 \theta\] In the integral, we notice if we pick u=tan(theta) we will get a nice simplification. Take the derivative of u with respect to theta to get: \[\frac{ du }{ d \theta } = \sec^2 \theta\] and multiply both sides by d theta to plug into your integral: \[\int\limits_{}^{}\frac{ du }{ u^2+1 } = \int\limits_{}^{}\frac{ \sec^2 \theta d \theta }{ \tan^2\theta+1 }=\int\limits_{}^{} d \theta\]
Thank you everyone for your help.
Of course from here since we know u=tan(theta) then theta must be arctan(u). This is the better method since you can easily integrate other similar things. Suppose you have to integrate: \[\int\limits_{}^{} \frac{ dx }{ x^2 + 9 }\] then what do you do? Do you take the derivative of stuff by hacking in the dark? No. You choose: x=3tan(theta) since when it plugs in you can easily see you'll get: \[9\tan^2 \theta + 9 = 9 \sec^2 \theta\]
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