calc 2
Given,\[\Large\bf\sf x(t)=\cos4t, \qquad\qquad y(t)=\sin7t\]The formula for arc length in parametric form is uhhhh, \[\Large\bf\sf L\quad=\quad \int\limits_0^{2\pi}\sqrt{\left(\frac{dx}{dt}\right)^2+\left(\frac{dy}{dt}\right)^2}~ dt\]Something like that right? So where you getting stuck?
yeah not sure where to go from there
You need a couple derivatives that you can plug into the integral. \[\Large\bf\sf x(t)=\cos4t\]\[\Large\bf\sf \frac{dx}{dt}=?\]
Hmm this is a weird problem... Feels like it's going to work out similarly to the one we had yesterday, where it can't be integrated.
yeah thats what i though too. what do i do in that situation
Never mind, I was wrong.
let me try once: we have arcsin y = \(\dfrac{7}{4} arccos x\) so, y = 7/4 sin(arccos x) dy/dx = 7/4 cos (arccos x)* (arccos x)' = 7/4 *x * (-1/ sqrt (1-x^2)) from this, put all into the formula \[L = \int_0^{2\pi} \sqrt{1-(dy/dx)^2}dx\] Not sure, need check
Well the thing is: \[ \frac{dy}{dt}=\frac{dy}{dx} \frac{dx}{dt} \]Even when you solve for \(dy/dx\) here, you still get a nasty integrand.
\[\frac{dy}{dx}= -\frac{7}{4}\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\] and (dy/dx)^2 is quite "beautiful"
Well... \(t=(1/4)\arccos(x) \), so \(y=\sin((7/4)\arccos(x) )\)
oh, you see, to x = cos 4t, from 0 to 2pi . According to the formula, t =0, x = 1, t =2pi, x =1 too. therefore, when applying the formula, we get integral from 1 to 1 (respect to x) =0
You can't just pull out the \(7/4\) though.
\[L = \int_a^b \sqrt{1+(\frac{dy}{dx})^2}dx\] where \(a = f(\alpha\) ) and b = \(f(\beta\)) so, we convert a, b from x = cos 4t, (0, 2pi) to (1,1) therefore int =0
Am I right? from my note, x = f(t) , y = g(t) , the integral can be calculate respect to x on that way.
Well, \([a,b] = [x(0), x(2\pi)]\), but I'm not sure if your \(y(x)\) is correct.
if we go on that way, no need to calculate integrand, right? since the limit shows the value of integral =0 for all y(x)
Well, if \(y(x)\) isn't even a function to begin with, then it is possible that \(y(1) \neq y(1)\),
Which is why not all parametrizations work.
I don't get what you mean by y(1) != y(1) if it is an odd function.
If you actually draw out the curve, you will realize that its length is not 0.
oh, got you, parametric curve. !!
The relationship between \(y\) and \(x\) is not that of a function, since \(x(t_1)=x(t_2)\not\to y(t_1)=y(t_2)\).
You could split it up inter certain sections, and then \(y(x)\) would be a function on those sections.
wow, it's so complicated.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!