I'm looking over some solved Taylor and Maclaurin series, and I can't figure out the logic used in one solution, finding the Maclaurin series for arctan(x); Photo below in a moment.
I can't figure out where they get off saying, "...substitute -x^2 in Basic Power Series Formula." How did they figure out to substitute x^2 based on the derivative?
\[\frac{1}{1-x}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}x^n\]
therefore \[\frac{1}{1+x^2}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-x^2)^n\] or \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^nx^{2n}\]
(Sorry, don't want to waste your time; was doing other stuff, now looking at what you wrote. One second.)
i think i have the \((-1)^n\) part right, if not, it is \((-1)^{n+1}\)
that is what that line means, substitute \(-x^2\) for \(x\) in the well known expansion of \(\frac{1}{1-x}\)
.....the bounds of x. .....the bounds of x.
yw then integrate term by term it is easy enough to remember since arcangent is odd, you will get only odd powers and they alternate
@primeralph What?
The equations wont work for all x.
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