I understand the following lines, but want to make complete sense out of them.
Suppose that \(a\) and \(b\) are incommensurable; divide \(b\) into \(m\) equal parts each equal to \(\beta\), so that \(b = m \beta\), where \(m\) is a positive integer. Also suppose \(\beta\) is contained in \(a\) more than \(n\) times and less than \(n+1\) times; Then \(\dfrac{a}{b} > \dfrac{n\beta}{m\beta} ~ {\rm and } < \dfrac{(n+1)\beta}{m\beta}\). That is, \(a/b\) lies between \(n/m\) and \((n+1)/m\); So that \(a/b\) differs from \(n/m\) by a quantity less than \(1/m\). And since we can choose \(\beta\) (our unit of measurement) as small as we please, \(m\) can be made as great as we please. Hence \(1/m\) can be made as small asa we please, and two integers \(n\) and \(m\) can be found whose ratio will express that of \(a\) and \(b\) to any required degree of accuracy.
I think I know what is happening in the first paragraph and those two lines, but the central point is still out of my reach.
Probably more about the language of the writers...
inbetween 2 rational numbers exists at least 1 irrational number
What level of math is this, I somewhat understand what it's saying ._. it's what's bothering me :/
between 2.450 and 2.451 there exists at least 1 irrational number
we can make the interval as small as we want and there will still exists at least 1 irrational number in the middle
Are you using "irrational numbers" as an example or is that exactly what is said here?
incommensurable means not measureable ... cannot be defined as a rational number
or in this case it may mean not common factor, in simplest form
when a and b are not divisible any further, then the gcd(a,b) = 1, in other words they are relatively prime
Yes, hmm - so what is meant by "required degree of accuracy" when a/b is rational?
take 2 measures, Circumference of a circle, and its diameter .... C/d is some value that can be approximated to any degree of accuracy
a and b are 2 measures that have no common factors ... and in a ratio they form some irrational value is what im getting from it
A rational number is defined as the ratio of two coprime numbers, then how can a/b be irrational? :P
this is geometry language .. and its related to sqrt(2) and pi ... numbers that are a ratio of some measureable parts, but have no rational expression
ah.
spose we are in binary ... 1/3 is an irrational number since it takes an infinity of 1/2s to create
oh!
thanks, amistre! that makes sense
youre welcome :) with any luck i may even be right lol
hahahahaha
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