Use L'Hopital's rule to solve: (1-sinx)/(1+cos2x) LIM x --> pi/2
What's the limit?
sorry
Cool. So L'Hopital's Rule only applies to indeterminite forms when you plug the limit in for x. In this case, we have a case of 0/0
yes
With L'Hopital's rule, we can still find the limit. Take the derivative of both the numerator and the denominator, and leave them in the numerator and denominator. Then, apply the limit again.
i did. I got -cosx/-2sin2x
this is 0/0?
Sure. Apply it again! The fun never stops.
i am getting sinx/-4Cos2x = -1/4
@iPwnBunnies : the asked question has indeterminate form .. its 0/0 form
Yes, the limit is -1/4. && I did address the form was 0/0. Did I miss something?
Oh no, you're wrong! It's 1/4, not -1/4. Check your denominator math again lol.
@iPwnBunnies : sorry i read it wrong..
You could also just use straight algebra/trig if you preferred. Recall \[2\cos^2(x)=1+\cos(2x)\] so we could write... \[\frac{1-\sin(x)}{2\cos^2(x)}=\frac{1-\sin(x)}{2(1-\sin^2(x))}=\frac{1-\sin(x)}{2(1-\sin(x))(1+\sin(x))}\] Then those 1-sin(x) 's cancel \[\frac{1}{2(1+\sin(x))}\] now you can plug in the value it still get 1/4
Trig subs are the worst. :|
but how come if i use the other method I am getting a zero? - tht's what I don't get.\[\frac{ 1-sinx }{ 1+co2x }\] \[= \frac{ (1-sinx)(1+sinx )}{(1+ \cos2 )(1+sinx)}\] \[\frac{ 1-\sin ^{2}x }{ 1+sinxcos2x+sinx+\cos2x } = \frac{ \cos ^{2}x }{ 1+0+1+0 } =\frac{ 0 }{ 2 } =0\]
or what's wrong with my method
cos(2*pi/2)=cos(pi)=-1 not 0 so you have 1-1+1-1 on bottom not 1+0+1+0 look at the way I did it to get rid of the 0/0 case
thanx @myininaya
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!