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Calculus question... Am I breaking a rule by doing this? equation soon to come
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\[{dx \over dr}={dy \over dr}\]I want to cancel out the dr's to just get \[dx = dy\]
Then I can integrate. Can I do this?
that looks good to me it would be equivalent to multiplying both sides by dr and integrating \( \int \dfrac{dx}{dr} dr = \int \dfrac{dy}{dr} dr \)
the dr is canceled automatically
d/dr and integral with respect to dr are just inverse operations
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