Question

Why is...

Answer 1

WHY IS WHAT

Answer 2

\[\frac{\pi^2}{3!}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}\]

Answer 3

Like, geometrically how would I show this?

Answer 4

This is not a very obvious result. This page explains how to get it:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem

Answer 5

you already asked this, and we came to the same result....note
3! = 6.....

Answer 6

well you didnt post it, but you answered it....lol

http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/533a6a53e4b00d66d1d2d507

Answer 7

:)

Answer 8

Yes, but I can do it but I want to see shapes. It is in no way obvious to me still. I know what steps to make when and where but I see no relation to circles by adding an infinite number of inverse squares.