a^2+b^2+c^2+ab+bc+ac>0 for all a, b, c? please, help
I need prove or disprove the expression
You can try relating it to (a+b+c)^2 by adding and subtracting terms.
I did, but go nowhere (a+b+c)^2 -ab-bc-ac and then?
Try this then (a-b)^2 + (b-c)^2 + (a-c)^2 >= 0
We know that this is always true. Expand and reach your inequality.
\(\large a^2 + b^2 + c^2 +ab+bc+ca = \frac{1}{2}[(a+b)^2 +(b+c)^2 + (c+a)^2 ]\)
which is > 0, if \(a\ne -b, b\ne -c, c\ne -a\)
u can compress it into a single constraint
Thank you. I know what the result is now. So, it is not >0 for all. counter example is a = 1, b= -1 c =-1?
nope
try a = 1, b = -1, c = 1
ahh doesnt work either
if it >0 , need prove, if it is not >0, just counter example. That's all @AravindG I expand your expression, it goes to something different from original one :)
your counter example doesnt seem to work... check once
yes, it doesn't hehehe
counter example : a = 0, b = 0, c = 0
not an exciting one.. .
I misread the question and tried to prove a^2 + b^2 + c^2 ≥ ab + ac + bc. Sorry.
but if a = b=0, c =-1 works
doesnt work
again, you are right, me wrong, hehehehe
If we just use the expansion kindly provided by @ganeshie8, and the fact that it's equal to 0 if and only if \(a=-b, b= -c, c=-a\), then we can solve the expression in terms of \(a\). We get\[b=-a\]\[c=-b=a\]but also\[c=-a\]So \(c=a=-a\). This is only true if \(a=0\), and consequently \(a=b=c=0\). So other than the trivial solution where they're all 0, your expression must always be greater than 0.
wow ! that looks really cool+simple proof xD
Thank you very much, I got it.
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