Can someone check my answer for the following problem? "Determine the volume of the solid generated by revolving the area enclosed by the following curves about the y-axis: y=1, x=1, x^2 + y^2 = 1." I used the Washer Method, with upper and lower limits of 1 and 0 respectively. I got 2pi/3, but my book has pi/3. Did I do something wrong? If so, can someone help me solve this correctly? Any and all help is greatly appreciated! :)
The sphere has a volume of 4/3pir^3 where r is 1, 4/3pi. The cube which encases it has a volume of 2*2*2=8. I'm getting 4-2pi/3 as the area of that enclosed part so I'm confused. I know that the half of the sphere would be 2pi/3, if that helps.
Sorry, perhaps I didn't word my question clear enough– the volume that is to be revolved is the three-sided chunk BETWEEN the outside of the "circle" formed by x^2 + y^2 = 1 and the square formed by x=1 & y=1. The sliver in the corner is what needs revolved, so it would be an upside-down, flat-bottomed bowl that is the solid figure, with the sphere being the empty space, not included in the shape. (My book has a graph) :)
The geometric outlook is that we have an outer bound of a cylinder and we remove the inner upper-half sphere. The volume of the cylinder is V=pi r^2 h (r=1,h=1) = pi. The volume of the upper hemisphere is V = 1/2 (4/3 pi r^3) (r=1) = 2/3 pi. So the total volume is the difference: pi - 2/3 pi = pi/3. What did you write down for the whole integral where you set it up?
If we chose Washer method, we have an outer radius and an inner radius and we are revolving around the y-axis (x=0), we have this set up: \( \displaystyle \pi \int_{a}^{b} R^2 - r^2 \ dy \) R = 1, r = sqrt(1 - y^2), a=0, b=1 \( \displaystyle \pi \int_{0}^{1} 1^2 - \left( \sqrt{1 - y^2} \right)^2 \ dy \) Can you compare this to your integral and see what went wrong?
Those are the limits, and radii I used... :/ I wrote the inner radius as (1 - y)^2, because when solving the x^2 + y^2 = 1, I took the square root of both sides, and I simplified (1 - y^2)^(1/2) to be (1 - y). Is that okay?
That would not work. Because: \( \sqrt{1 + a^2} \color{red} \ne \sqrt{1} + \sqrt{a^2} = 1 + a \) The square root does not distribute through addition, it only distributes through multiplication (same as rules of exponents). This would be true: \( \sqrt{ (1 + a)^2 } = 1 + a \) The square root and square cancel out.
The way you get that 1/3 coefficient out is because you simply cancel the square root and squared parts: \( \left( \sqrt{1 + y^2} \right)^2 = 1 + y^2 \) and then your integrand simplifies into: \( 1 - (1 + y^2) = y^2 \) When you integrate \(y^2\), you get \(\dfrac{y^3}{3} \) and taking this from 0 to 1 the numerator is 1/3 - 0/3 = 1/3.
I got it, and now understand what I did wrong! Thank you very much!
Glad to help! :)
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