Help with induction proof http://prntscr.com/3gyp2j
n = 1 : \( (a^1 - 1) = (a-1)(a^0) = a-1 \implies 1 \in S\)
I feel stuck after this, help please..
i am familar with induction its just that i was never good at using the 2nd priciple
yeah it looks tough to me as I never did second principle before, here is the assumption : assume the statement is true for n = 1,2,3,.... k-1 and show that it is trie for n = k
i know for strong induction you need to do 2 base cases
Ahh that makes sense... n = 2 : \(a^2 - 1 = (a-1)(a^1 + a^0) = (a-1)(a+1) \implies 2 \in S\) too
so we assume an arbitrary k where its true for k and k+1 and we prove k+2
yes and what about the hint
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/15371/using-the-second-principle-of-finite-induction-to-prove-an-1-a-1an-1 this link has the exact question and answer
Assumption : \(a^k - 1 = (a-1)(a^{k-1} + a^{k-2} + ... + a + 1) \) \(a^{k+1} - 1 = (a-1)(a^{k}+a^{k-1} + ... + a + 1) \) To prove : \(a^{k+2} - 1 = (a-1)(a^{k+1} + a^{k} + ... + a + 1) \)
I had a look at MSE earlier, it was incomplete... and i was not able to comprehend it :(
hm.. i try something similar let \[f(n) = a^{n-1} + a^{n-2} + .... + 1\] so \[a^k - 1 = (a-1)f(n)\]
oh ok \(a^{k+1} - 1 = (a-1)f(n+1)\) ?
im not sure how to write it for a^(k+1) i dont rember the properties on how to pull it out
oh yea thats right haha
so you just need to mani[pulate the a^(k+2) now \[a^{k+2} - 1 = a(a^{k+1}) - 1\]
yes starting with this we wanto to show it equals \((a-1)f(k+1)\) i guess ?
yea but the thing is im not really too sure on how to manipulate it to look like it
i have difficulty there itself... moving to next step/writing k+2 it in terms of "f(n)"
from the hint \(a^{n+1} - 1 = (a+1)(a^n-1) - a(a^{n-1}-1)\) we can cook up : \[a^{k+2}-1 = (a+1)(a^{k+1}-1) - a(a^k-1)\]
never dealt with functions in proofs before, the notation looks confusing :/
yea im not really sure how that jump works there im think since \[a^{k+1} - 1 = (a-1)f(n+1) \] then \[1 = a^{k+1} - (a-1)f(n+1)\] and we subsititute it in the a^(k+2)
\[a^{k+2}-1 = a^{k+2} - \left(a^{k+1} - (a-1)f(n+1) \right) \]
like this ?
no wait i meant the other 1 on the RHS
\[a^{k+2}-1 = a^{k+2} - \left(a^{k+1} - (a-1)f(n+1) \right) \] \[a^{k+2}-1 = a^{k+2} - a^{k+1} + (a-1)f(n+1) \] \[a^{k+2}-1 = a^{k+1}(a - 1) + (a-1)f(n+1) \] \[a^{k+2}-1 = (a-1)\left(a^{k+1} + f(n+1) \right) \]
i think we're done xD unless im overlooking something...
not done yet im jjust thinking on how to approach this
Only for curiosity, if you assume the hint, maybe you can use it this way, \[a^{n+1}-1=(a+1)(a^n-1)-a(a^{n-1}-1)=\\ =(a+1)(a-1)(a^{n-1}+\ldots+a+1)-a(a-1)(a^{n-2}+\ldots+a+1)=\\ =(a-1)[(a+1)(a^{n-1}+\ldots+1)-a(a^{n-2}+\ldots+1)]=\\ =(a-1)[a^n+\ldots+a+(a^{n-1}+\ldots+1)-(a^{n-1}+\ldots+a)]=\\ =(a-1)[a^n+\ldots+1]\]
looks simple enough !! looks you have just used "n" and "n-1" to prove "n+1"
Yes, in order to use the hint I apply that.
thank you so much :) I'll give u medal from my other account as you both have helped me nail it down xD
yea john is right on track with that im completely rusty on the strong induction
the proof is perfect, but i feel John's method is not really a strong induciton as it is not using 1,2,3.... k ?
I'm not sure if it is okay if we just use "n" and "n-1" to prove "n+1"
cuz using just "n" to prove "n+1" is a weak induction... not sure if we can say using "n" and "n-1" is a strong induction
You need to suppose that it is true for k=1,2, and then suppose it is true for n. Then you prove the result for n+1, that is why you use the hint.
Yes thats the first principle proof
Second principle is slightly different : we suppose 1,2,3...upto k all are true and use it to prove k+1
Yes, it's true.
i think for second principle, in the end we should get : Because the statement is true for \(n=k+1\), whenever it is true for the integers 1,2,...k, we conclude by the second induction principle that ...
Yes, then I think you can use this solution. I mean, it is true for k=1, k=2, then try for k=n+1. If this is true, the it is done.
thats more like first principle
Following, the Lucas example, it should be like: it is true for k=!, k=2, then assume it is true for k=n and k=n-1. Then for k=n+1 we have the solution.
If it is true for k=n+1, whenever it is true for k=1,2,...,k-1, then for the second induction principle we conclude the result for k=n is also correct.
Makes sense :) the example also used "n" and "n-1" only xD
Something like that :)
thanks a lot John, its very clear now :)
You're welcome. An interesting problem :)!
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