Let V be a finite dimensional vector space and A \(\in L(V)\). Suppose \(N(A)=N(A^2)\) a) Prove \(V=N(A)\oblus R(A)\) b) Prove that \(\bar A\in L(V/N(A))\) , defined by A[v]=[Av]is well-defined
I got part a not part b
someone gives me the proof: \[\bar A :V/N(A)\rightarrow V/N(A)\] if \(\vec u'\in [\vec u] \) then \(\vec u' -\vec u\in N(A)\) --> Au'=Au -->A[u']=[Au] so, \(\bar A\) is well defined I don't understand a word. :( The argue start from A and the conclusion is on \(\bar A\)
So let's go through the argument step by step. 1. If \(\vec{u}'\in[\vec{u}]\), then \(A\vec{u}'=A\vec{u}\), so \(A\vec{u}'-A\vec{u}=\vec{0}\). By factoring \(A\) out, this means that \(A(\vec{u}'-\vec{u})=\vec{0}\). So by definition, \(\vec{u}'-\vec{u}\in N(A)\).
yes.
To get that \(A[\vec{u}']=[A\vec{u}]\), in set notation we have that\[A[\vec{u}']=\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}''\text{ for some }\vec{u}''\in[\vec{u}']\}\]\[[A\vec{u}]=\{\vec{v}\in V:A(A\vec{u})=A\vec{v}\}.\]
Sorry, having some internet problems on my side. I've nearly convinced myself this is true, but there's one step I'm not sure of yet.
The net is on and off here, too. If you don't see me, please, leave the instruction here. I will get right after I can access the net.
We're definitely going to have to use the fact that \(N(A)=N(A^2)\).
Now we have that since \([\vec{u}']=[\vec{u}]\), \[\begin{aligned} A[\vec{u}']&=\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}''\text{ for some }\vec{u}''\in[\vec{u}']\}\\ &=\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}''\text{ for some }\vec{u}''\in[\vec{u}]\}\\ &=\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}''\text{ s.t. }A\vec{u}''=A\vec{u}\}\\ &=\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}\}\\ &=\{\vec{v}\in V:A\vec{v}=A^2\vec{u}\}\quad\leftarrow\text{This step doesn't seem right to me}\\ &=[A\vec{u}]. \end{aligned}\]
where do you want me to go to? hihihihi
This argument shows that we have one containment (\(A[\vec{u}']\subseteq[A\vec{u}]\)). It's only other one that's giving me some trouble.
Well, if \(\vec{v}\in [A\vec{u}]\), then \(A^2\vec{u}-A\vec{v}=\vec{0}\), so \(A\vec{u}-\vec{v}\in N(A)=N(A^2)\). But I don't immediately see how that helps.
Ah. I think I can convince myself now. Since \(N(A)=N(A^2)\), we have that if \(A\vec{v}=\vec{0}\) iff \(A(A\vec{v})=\vec{0}\) as well. So restricting our attention to the subset \[V\supseteq S=\{\vec{w}\in V:\vec{w}=A\vec{v}\text{ for some }\vec{v}\in V\},\]we see that \(N(A)\cap S=\vec{0}\). Furthermore, since \(A[\vec{u}']\subseteq S\), we do in fact have that \[\{\vec{v}\in V:\vec{v}=A\vec{u}\}=\{\vec{v}\in V:A\vec{v}=A^2\vec{u}\}.\]The conclusion I had above then follows.
what do you think?
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