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Integral calculus help please Prove the third law of logarithms. Hint: Start by showing that both sides of the equation have the same derivative.
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do you have an example or is it just asking you to prove it?
you are welcome.
I think you need to use mean value theorem
say \(f(x) = \ln (x^r)\) and \(g(x) = r \ln (x)\) \(f'(x) = \dfrac{1}{x^r} rx^{r-1} = \dfrac{r}{x}\) \(g'(x) = \dfrac{r}{x}\) That means \(f'(x) = g'(x)\)
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thats the first step only ^
Any idea how to conclude ?
Hint: Start by showing that both sides of the equation have the same derivative. Didn't read the full question! @rational is correct.
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