Mathematics
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Can someone help me with calculus ab
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
given: F(x) = \[\int\limits_{1}^{x}dt/t\]
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
a. Determine the open interval over which F(x) represents an antiderivative of f(x) = 1/x
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
b. Find the x-intercept of F(x)
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
I don't think b is a problem but how do you do part a?
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
a) i think the open interval is (1, oo ) or (1, infinity )
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ok this is antiderivative but how do I know the interval
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
the antiderivative is ln t , not t
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
x can vary from 1 to some positive number , so 1 to infinity
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Wait but the antiderivative is x-1 right?
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
it is not 1 to infinity
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (perl):
oh wait, i guess it should be ( 1 , x ) , where x>1
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Wait perl said the antiderivative is lnt?
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
yes, because F(x) = ln (x) - ln (1) = ln (x) - 0 = ln(x)
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ya I think that's right because F(x) is the antiderivative of 1/x.
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
the antiderivative of 1/t is ln | t | , yes
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
You all helped. Thanks a lot :]
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
and and F(x) = ln (x) = 0 , when x = 1 , so you are right
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
to find x intercept you solve F(x) = 0 , i believe
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Yup I got it
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
the answer to (a) is \[(0,\infty)\]
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (perl):
@Zarkon
i thought you said (0,infinity) is not the answer to a) ?
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
1/t is continuous on (0,infiniity)
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
when did I say that
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
You said it's not 1 to infinity
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
scroll up, you said 'it is not 1 to infinity '
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
It's 0 to infinity
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
But why 0 and not 1...
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
no , it is 1 to x where x is any real number greater than 1
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
because 1/t is continuous on (0,infiniity)
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
infinity is not a number, technically
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ya but we can still write infinity for intervals can't we
11 years ago
OpenStudy (perl):
(0,infinity ) creates an improper integral
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
thus the open parentheses and not closed
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
It says "open interval"
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
\[(0,\infty)\] is an open interval
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
You got this by knowing that the domain of lnx is (0, infinity) right
11 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ya I remember learning this
11 years ago
OpenStudy (zarkon):
here your f(t)=1/t
it is continuous on (0,infinity)
1 is in the interval (0,infinity)
therefore if \[F(x)=\int\limits_{1}^{x}\frac{1}{t}dt\]
then \[F'(x)=f(x)\]
on (0,infinity)
11 years ago
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ok thank you
11 years ago