The expression (secx + tanx)2 is the same as _____.
Since secx is the same as 1/cosx, and tanx is the same as sinx/cosx, we have 1/cosx, sinx/cosx. We can add the numerators now since the denominator is the same and we get (1+sinx)/cosx. What is that 2 stuck at the end? Does it get distributed through or something? Either way that is an equivalent expression to your given.
hmmm have you covered the binomial theorem? I assume you should have by now
\(\large (a\pm b)^2\implies a^2\pm 2ab+b^2\)
\(\bf \large [{\color{brown}{ sec(x)}}+{\color{blue}{ tan(x)}}]^2\implies {\color{brown}{ \square }}^2+2{\color{brown}{ \square }}{\color{blue}{ \square }}+{\color{blue}{ \square }}^2\)
check your choices, it'd be there
sec^2x+2cscx+tan^2 is that the answer
cscx?
hmmm
secx=1/cosx tanx=sinx/cosx so: \(=(\huge\frac{ 1+sinx}{cosx})^2\) now this you can put in many ways: for example using \((a+b)^2=a^2+2ab+b^2\) you can get \((1+2sinx+sin^2x)/(cos^2x)\) which is your answer wit coscx changed to secx
whats the answer
well. if you expand that first, waht would you get?
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!