Alright fancy integral for @nincompoop
\[\int\limits_0^\infty x^n e^{-x}dx\] Before I solve it, I guess I'll give it a second to let people try to figure out what the answer is and derive it for fun. Then I'll show the answer.
Let's start with something simple. \[\int\limits_0^\infty e^{-y}dy\]And let's introduce a new parameter, a, just because we can. A is a constant with respect to x and y. After Id o this, I'll only worry about x, y is just a dummy variable here. You'll see why in a moment. y=ax dy=adx \[\int\limits_0^\infty a e^{-ax}dx\]So this should be pretty straight forward to integrate, remember, a is just a constant.
\[a \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx=a[\frac{-1}{a}e^{-ax}]_0^\infty\]\[[\frac{-1}{e^{ax}}]_0^\infty=\frac{-1}{e^\infty}- \frac{-1}{e^0}=1\]So the whole integral becomes: \[1=a \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\]divide both sides by a, really just a^(-1) right? \[a^{-1}= \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\]Now this is the trick. It involves partial derivatives, I'll give you a second to take a guess.
\[a^{-1}= \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\] Take the derivative with respect to a. We can do that, since a and x are independent variables of each other. \[(-1)a^{-2}= \int\limits_0^\infty (-x) e^{-ax}dx\] notice that the negative signs will cancel each other out just leaving: \[a^{-2}= \int\limits_0^\infty x e^{-ax}dx\]Let's do a few more derivatives in a row, I'll automatically skip the part where I get rid of the negative signs though.\[2a^{-3}= \int\limits_0^\infty x^2 e^{-ax}dx\]\[2*3a^{-4}= \int\limits_0^\infty x^3 e^{-ax}dx\]\[2*3*4a^{-5}= \int\limits_0^\infty x^4 e^{-ax}dx\] Seems like a pattern is coming up? \[\frac{n!}{a^{n+1}}= \int\limits_0^\infty x^n e^{-ax}dx\] Cool. Set a=1 \[n!= \int\limits_0^\infty x^n e^{-x}dx\] Yikes.
I dare you to check it with integration by parts lol.
For a second I doubted you're going to derive laplace transform stuff out of this :P
clearly
Nah I'm sharing the love! This is such a hard looking integral but really it turns out to be really easy and kind of like magical haha. I wish I came up with it, but sadly I'm just a messenger lol.
"easy"
ya... this was about half a board in my class and it wasn't like this
Well you are just solving an e^x integral and then doing partial derivatives after that. I mean it's not as uncomfortable as doing integration by parts or trig sub, it's just new to you right now that's all lol.
apparently I am still "validating" the steps
Ask questions when/if you have them, or show me a cool integral you know about so I can learn more. =P
adx = dy somehow, I saw the 1/a but in a different manner...
Oh what do you mean?
this part \[\frac{ 1 }{ a } \int\limits ae^{-ax}dx\]
you skipped this part or am I hallucinating?
\[1=\int\limits_0^\infty ae^{-ax}dx\] So we're at this point right? Since a is just a constant, we can just pull it out of the integral\[1=a \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\]divide both sides by a:\[\frac{1}{a}=\frac{a}{a}\int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\]\[a^{-1}=\int\limits_0^\infty e^{-ax}dx\] Did that answer your question?
yeah
thank you for sharing
I just sorta noticed something interesting if you replace the x with an r it looks kind of like a polar integral. \[\frac{r!}{a^{n+1}}=\int\limits_0^\infty r^n e^{-ar}dr\] Noticing that \[2\pi = \int\limits _0^{2\pi} d \theta \] we can multiply this by that integral to get: \[\frac{2\pi \ r^n}{a^{n+1}}=\int\limits_0^{2\pi} \int\limits_0^\infty r^{n-1} e^{-ar} \ r \ dr \ d \theta\] convert to rectangular coordinates:\[\frac{2\pi \ (x^2+y^2)^{n/2}}{a^{n+1}}=\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty (x^2+y^2)^{(n-1)/2} \ e^{-a \sqrt{x^2+y^2}} dx dy\] Yeah that's just a dirty integral but we have the general formula for this useless thing now lol. Any ideas on how else to play with this thing?
you're crazy
it's 6:55AM
5:55 AM here.
happens
actually what I just typed makes no sense.
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