Evaluate the integral:
0
\[\LARGE \int_{0}^{\pi/2}~sin^2x~cos^2x~dx\]
try without the limits first
I'll do the indefinite you do the limits :D
copy cat
copy bat*
Actually no, luigi show me what you've done first...
Can you do it by parts?
you can do anything you want
cos^2x = (1-sin^2x)
\[\int\limits \sin^2x(1-\sin^2x)dx => \int\limits (\sin^2x - \sin^4x)dx \]
This is the identity: \[\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }\sin^{2}(2x)\]
Lets confuse luigi more
I changed it to \[\LARGE \int (\frac{1+cos2x}{2})(\frac{1-cos2x}{2})~dx\] but got the wrong answer..
laughing out loud
that ultimately reduces to (1/4) sin^2(2x)
\[\int\limits \sin^2xcos^2x dx = \int\limits \sin^2x(1-\sin^2x)dx\] Because cos^2x = 1-sin^2x, then you can expand it and get, \[\int\limits (\sin^2x-\sin^4x) dx = \int\limits \sin^2xdx - \int\limits \sin^4x dx\] You can use the reduction formula here, do you know it?
\[I=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^2 x\ dx\]\[J=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \ dx\]\[J-I=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x(1-\cos^2 x) \ dx=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^4 x \ dx\] ok now you can solve this more complicated simplification. GL!
\[\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }\sin^{2}(2x)=\frac{ 1 }{ 8 }(1-\cos(4 x)) \]
neat trick, kai
\[I=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x-\sin^4 x \ dx\] Although honestly is that any better?
Don't bully me
laughing out loud he's batman
I'm robbin'
you can use power reduction from the get go
\[\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }\sin^3xcosx+\int\limits \sin^2xdx-\frac{ 3 }{ 4 } \int\limits \left( \frac{ 1 }{ 2 }-\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }\cos(2x) \right)dx\] eek
ok the real way to do it is like this:
\[\int\limits_{0}^{\Pi/2}\frac{ 1 }{ 4 }\sin^{2}(2x)=\int\limits_{0}^{\Pi/2}\frac{ 1 }{ 8 }(1-\cos(4x))\]
\[\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin^2 x \cos^2 x \ dx=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} (\sin x \cos x )^2\ dx=\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} (\frac{1}{2}\sin (2x) )^2 \ dx\]
\[\frac{1}{4}\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \sin ^2 (2x) \ dx =\frac{1}{4}\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} \frac{1-\cos (4x)}{2} \ dx=\frac{1}{8}\int\limits_0^{\pi/2} 1-\cos (4x) \ dx\]
\[\int\limits \sin^2xcos^2x dx = \frac{ 1 }{ 32 }(4x-\sin(4x))+C \] Final answer of indefinite integral, fyi.
So pi/16 with limits
Actually there's more cleverness I suggest you do while solving this: 4x=u to get rid of how frequent it is. \[\frac{1}{2}\int\limits_0^{2\pi} 1-\cos (u)\ du\] Notice how that limit of integration changed? That automatically allows us to drop the cosine part! Why? Well every 2pi it repeats right? Just look at this |dw:1401684706608:dw| those areas cancel out every 2pi so don't even bother integrating it since you know it's garbage. \[\frac{1}{2}\int\limits_0^{2\pi}du=\pi\] That's right right?
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