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is this step even allowed? if so, why?
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I don't think so but what do I know... laughing out loud
@kinggeorge
it looks reasonable
\(i_0\) doesn't seem to be quantified in the first statement so I don't see what's inappropriate about the statemetn...
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well, yes it does seem reasonable, and I have no doubt that it is false. however, what i'm looking for is why? from definition? or theorem?
what are you trying to prove?
it came from this exercise. Number 22. The book says it's correct.
is that the first or second half of the proof?
first half. But it seems the statement I posted is used in both first and second half of the proof
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ugh, I would help you, but I think it's too late at night for my brain to function properly. Sorry.
that's alright lol
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