\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{ \cos(sinx)-\cos x }{ x^4 }\]
HI CODY!
hello
@ganeshie8 ??
@ParthKohli ?? @Nurali ??
@mathmale ?
have you gone over l'hospitals rule? @cody_123
i think that would be tedious
it sure would. but can you think of a better way of doing it at the moment ? I am all ears
actually it wouldn't be too bad. you would have to differentiate the top 4 times. if you're good with chain rule, it wouldn't be too bad.
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}\frac{ -\sin(sinx)*\cos x+\sin x }{ 4x^3 }\]
good that's right
you will continue doing it until there is no more x in the denom
that wud be too long
alrighty... let's see if we can find another way to do it.
I'm looking into the special sine and cosine limits
cosC - cosD is not simplifying much :/
it sure isn't. @ganeshie8 @cody_123 I'm still working on it. Even if we can't find a better way of doing it, just know that you will come out with the correct solution using the rule.
yeah, it's crummy, but really it's gonna be l'hosital's rule. I hate to be the bearer of bad news >.< and it gets ugly
Continuous use of L'H Rule will be best.
it would be too long, any short method
Just a thought: You can replace \(x^4\) with \(\sin^4(x)\) since \(\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x} = 1\) and all. But I don't really see how that would help either. Maybe we could use some more results like the sin(x)/x one.
I think it's 1/6. what I ended up doing was taking really small numbers close to 0 and estimating it in my calc and it looks like it'll be 1/6.
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim_%28x+tends+to+0%29+%28cos%28sinx%29+-+cosx%29%2Fx%5E4+
1/6 .. is the answer lol
We need to get to 1/6 somehow
what about using expansions?
using tables on my calc it looks even more clear to me 1/6 should be it
like \[\cos x=1-\frac{ x^2 }{ 2! }+\frac{ x^4 }{ 4! }-....\]
oh, like a power series.
if we can expand cos(sin x) till we get x^4 we can cancel x^4 in numerator and denominator
but wouldn't that also get extremely convoluted?
Why not take y = sin(x) ..
expand until we get x^4 but that would be using an approximation since it's an infinite series
I like how you're thinking outside the box : )
but I don't think that approach would turn into anything we could use.
\[\dfrac{\cos(\sin(x))}{\sin^4 (x)} - \dfrac{\cot(x)}{\sin^3 (x)}\]HALP ME. PLS.
@mathslover oh okay, so using a substitution. but then x would be sin^-1(y)
haha! I'm telling you, it's a really ugly problem and lhospital's looks like the only method that will reach an end
Well if I use substitution then the denominator will become : \((\sin^{-1} y)^4\) Differentiate it now... (w.r.t y) \(\cfrac{4 \sin^{-1} (y)^3 }{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \)
Seems like this is getting uglier and uglier ahah @Miracrown yeah..!
I honestly would discuss this one with your instructor and see if there are any tricks other than estimation to make the process go faster than lhospitals other than estimation I'm just not seeing another way.
\(\lim_{y \rightarrow 0} \cfrac{-(\sin y) \sqrt{1-y^2} + y}{4\sin^{-1} (y^3) } \)
In this problem I'm not seeing a faster way. if you could use a calculator it would be pretty quick to use a table but I totally get that you probably can't.
oh wait I might be onto something now it's my turn to try something!!
\[\cos x=1-\frac{ x^2 }{ 2! }+\frac{ x^4 }{ 4! }-..\]\[\sin x=x-\frac{ x^3 }{ 3! }+...\]
using the definition of derivative may yueld something
Expansion series may work now.
|dw:1402040189017:dw| I'm trying to use the special limit lim y-->0 [cos(y) - 1]/y = 0 |dw:1402040337234:dw| |dw:1402040492493:dw|
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