Parents FFgg and ffGG were crossed to give an F1 generation. When the F1 generation was testcrossed, the following progeny were observed: 190 FfGg , 210 ffgg , 298 Ffgg , 302 ffGg. What percentage of the gametes produced by the F1 individual are expected to be fg? 20% 30% 40% 60% I think it's 20%? Not fully sure.
|dw:1402117993936:dw| So, for our F1, we would have all FfGg genotype. We can ignore the rest of the question's info. It only wants to know the percentage of gametes that the F1 progeny would produce and we know all F1 are FfGg. Independent assortment tells us that the gametes' alleles are a random. This means for that for out diploid cell we have a50% chance a gamete would have F and a 50% chance for f. The same is true for G and g. Again, all are FfGg so the possible gametes would be: FG Fg fG fg Which is where we run into an issue, because the percentages given do not make sense for the question. Do you think the question is really asking about the gametes of the F2 individuals or is asking about the percentage we would expect were actually in the crossed sample given the resulting F2 genotpes?
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