find dy/dx ; y = tan inverse { sqrt (a-b/a+b) tanx/2 }
\[\Large\rm y=\arctan\left(\frac{\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan x}{2}\right)\]This...?
no its tan(x/2) not the whole thing divided by 2
\[\Large\rm y=\arctan\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan \frac{x}{2}\right)\]Oh ok :o
We can use chain rule and do it the long way... But I think I remember a shortcut for this ... trying to rememberrrrrr
Well if we do it the normal way, do you remember your arctan x derivative?
yes
\[\Large\rm y=\arctan \color{royalblue}{x},\qquad\to\qquad y'=\frac{1}{1+\color{royalblue}{x}^2}\]something like that, yah?
\[\Large\rm y=\arctan\color{royalblue}{\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan \frac{x}{2}\right)}\] \[\Large\rm y'=\frac{1}{1+\color{royalblue}{\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan \frac{x}{2}\right)}^2}~~\frac{d}{dx}\color{royalblue}{\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan \frac{x}{2}\right)}\]
Oh boy this is gonna be a doozy lol. Understand how I plugged that in similar to the way we did with arctan x? We then have chain rule happening. So we have to multiply by the derivative of the inner function.
i tried doing this using the chain rule..its way too long.. do you remember the shortcut yet ?
It shouldn't be `too long`. A and B are constants yes? So you won't have product rule or quotient rule or anything like that.
\[\Large\rm y'=\frac{1}{1+\color{royalblue}{\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\tan \frac{x}{2}\right)}^2}~\left(\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}~\sec^2 \frac{x}{2}\right)\frac{d}{dx}\frac{x}{2}\]That big ugly chain just gives you that, right? And then you just have to chain once more.
\[\Large\rm \frac{d}{dx}\tan x = \sec^2x\]
ok
Since this nasty thing is just a constant, let's replace it. \[\sqrt{\frac{a-b}{a+b}}=C\]Next let's look at the equation this way to save us some of the headache: \[\tan(y)=C \tan(\frac{x}{2})\]Then take the implicit derivative \[\sec^2 (y)y'=\frac{C}{2}\sec^2(\frac{x}{2})\]We can rearrange to get \[y'=\frac{C}{2}\sec^2(\frac{x}{2})\cos^2(y)\]Now use the above relation of tan(y) to draw a triangle.|dw:1402905920319:dw| So what's cosine of y? It's adjacent over hyptenuse right? Then we square it. \[y'=\frac{Csec^2(\frac{x}{2})}{2(C^2\tan^2(\frac{x}{2})+1)}\] This probably simplifies more and then you can plug C back in. This isn't really that fun of a problem unfortunately.
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