Noninteger derivative question.
It is known that for positive integers, this is true. \[\Large n!=\int\limits_0^\infty x^n e^{-x}dx\] And by allowing ourselves to plug in non-integer values, we can extend the factorial function to non-integer values, which we call the gamma function, and get interesting results like \[\Large \frac{1}{2} ! = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\] So now here's where my question begins. If you play with derivatives of polynomials, it is fairly obvious that the nth derivative of x raised to the n power will be: \[\Large \frac{d^n}{dx^n} \left( x^n \right) = n!\] So is it possible to show that there are non-integer derivatives and if so, is this consistent with the gamma function? For example, \[\Large \frac{d^{1/2}}{dx^{1/2}} \left( x^{1/2} \right) = \frac{1}{2}!\]
theoretically i think it's possible , but in that case what is the definition of the derivatives ?
I guess that's what I'm looking to find out. I've heard that noninteger derivatives have applications in electrochemistry, and I've read some things that I didn't understand about them in the past. I like to think that x^3 is x multiplied by itself 3 times, so x^(1/2) must be x multiplied by itself a half of a time right? Ok, obviously that's ridiculous but the point is we use square roots even though the exponent is sort of weird.
One problem is that \((1/2)!\) is not defined.
Yeah, in this case \(1/2\) not a positive integer.
wio its not defined on n! of 1.2.3....(n+1)! but with gamma function its ok
i mean there might me a space ( wich is not real ) that hold that value
but again the problem is with the derivative definition , which i have no clue what it could be ...
The problem is that the \(n\)th derivative equation provided applies for positive integers, and it's not shown that it applies for the gamma function.
We know \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}} x = \frac{d}{dx}x = 1 \]We could say \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}x = f(x), \quad \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}f(x) = 1 \]
Now, if \(f(x)=c\), then that means the half derivative can turn constants into constants...
Yeah, but you have to show that f(x) is a constant.
yes we could start by writing a general k-th derivative for the function x^n then plug in k = 1/2 and n = 1, for example, to obtain a half-derivative
if we wanted f(x) to be constant, we could use k = 1/2 and n = 0 Since x^0 = 1
Here's a fun fact: \[\large \frac{d^n}{dx^n}(e^{ax})=a^n e^{ax}\] replace a with i for added fun. See what happens if we try to use this for non-integers?
The reason that interests me is because e^x shows up in the gamma function and the power series of e^x has a lot of factorials in it.
Well, you can always verify it.
Suppose \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}e^{ax} = a^{1/2}e^{ax} \]Then we can say: \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}a^{1/2}e^{ax} = a^{1/2}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}e^{ax} = a^{1/2}a^{1/2}e^{ax} = ae^{ax} \]
So \[ \frac{d}{dx}e^{ax} = \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}e^{ax} \]
This only works assuming that normal derivative rules work for half derivatives.
Fractional calculus interesting ...
Fractional differential equations! =P
yeah lol i never touched that subject =)
Let \(a=0\), this implies that \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}1 = 0 \]Likewise \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}c=c\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}1 =c( 0)=0 \]
I like that @wio , very interesting. Something to note, it seems that this is a case where 0^0=1\[\large \frac{d^0}{dx^0}(e^{ax})=0^0e^{ax}\] Here is another thing I'm thinking about. \[\large \frac{d}{dx}(x^n)=nx^{n-1}\]\[\large \frac{d^2}{dx^2}(x^n)=n(n-1)x^{n-2}\] It seems like there should be remain some sort of constant "distance" between derivatives. \[\large \frac{d^{1/2}}{dx^{1/2}}(x^n)=\alpha x^{\beta}\]\[\large \frac{d}{dx}(x^n)=nx^{n-1}\] So maybe we can kind of equate the first parts and second parts some how. Maybe replace the second one's n's with m's and work something out.
Some of that stuff looks familiar. But I kinda want to figure this out without any help, it's more fun this way.
Maybe using product rule, and differentiating \(xe^{ax}\) would give us info about the half derivative of \(x\).
\[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}xe^{ax} = e^{ax}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}x+\frac{d^{1/2}}x{(dx)^{1/2}}e^{ax} = e^{ax}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}x+xa^{1/2}e^{ax} \]
Half derivative on left part gives \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}} e^{ax}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}} = a^{1/2}e^{ax}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}} x + e^{ax} \]
Notice the right part is the left part with a constant... \[ y = a^{1/2}e^{ax}\frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}} x + e^{ax} + a^{1/2}y \]
I think this means at most that the product rule doesn't work for non-integer derivatives. Now that I think about it, the product rule is specifically for first derivatives, not half or second derivatives if that makes sense.
Hmm, that is true.
Generalized product rule would be \[ \frac{d^n}{(dx)^n}f(x)g(x) = \sum_{k=0}^n\binom nk f^{(k)}(x)g^{(n-k)}(x) \]However, this uses binomial theorem.
Possibly useful, I noticed the other day that: \[(f+g)^n\] has the same form as \[(fg)^{(n)}\] Or to sort of rephrase it as the binomial theorem: \[\frac{d^n}{dx^n}[f(x)*g(x)]=\sum_{k=0}^{n}\left(\begin{matrix}n \\ k\end{matrix}\right) \frac{d^{n-k}f(x)}{dx^{n-k}} \frac{d^{k}g(x)}{dx^{k}}\] I think the binomial coefficients hide the most interesting part, the factorials. It's starting to get clunky, but this is sort of how you're thinking @wio with using the product rule, this is sort of a generalized product rule and it's based on factorials. So it sort of is a problem that won't go away for us unfortunately.
lol well you got it.
Okay, so we can let \(f(x) = 1\) and \(g(x)=x\).
The summation breaks for n=1/2. How do we add up all the terms from k=0 to k=1/2?
Hmm, I'm stuck. I think I need to sleep on it.
Oh hey, I just got 99 lol.
nice topic , and it make me think nw since there is fractional derivatives is there complex derivatives mmmm lolz or irrational derivatives
Another repetitive derivative is: \[ \frac{d^{2n}}{(dx)^{2n}}\sin(ax) = -1^{n}a^{n}\sin(ax) \]
We could consider \(\lim_{n\to 1/4}\)
Which gives you \[ \frac{d^{1/2}}{(dx)^{1/2}}\sin(ax)=- a^{1/4}\sin(ax) \]
But I'm not sure if that checks out...
It doesn't really work even when \(n\to 1/2\).
I just had a thought as I shut my eyes to sleep! Also, I have an answer for you wio. \[\Large \frac{d^n}{dx^n}(\sin(ax))=a^n \sin(ax+n \frac{\pi}{2})\] Now I haven't checked this next thing: \[\Large \frac{d^n}{dx^n} ( x^p)= \frac{p!}{(p-n)!}x^{p-n}\] That should work though. I'll check it in the morning.
ill try to work on it too , i might start from integral inverse , i saw something like this one before mmm
let \(p=1\) and \(n=1/2\).
then you get \[ \frac{x^{1/2}}{(1/2)!} \]
Ok I lied I couldn't wait. It works. =)
The half derivative of that will then be (1/2)! divided by (1/2)! which is 1, which is also the answer of 1! like we expect.
\[\Large \frac{d^{a}}{dx^{a}}(\frac{d^{b}}{dx^{b}}x^p)=\frac{d^{a}}{dx^{a}}(\frac{p!}{(p-b)!}x^{p-b}) =\\ \Large \frac{p!}{(p-b)!}\frac{d^{a}}{dx^{a}}(x^{p-b})=\frac{p!}{(p-b)!}\frac{(p-b)!}{(p-b-a)!}x^{p-b-a}= \\ \Large \frac{p!}{(p-b-a)!}x^{p-b-a}=\frac{d^{a+b}}{dx^{a+b}}(x^p)\] That's pretty general.
Thanks @wio and @ikram002p you helped more than you know! Thank you thank you! I'm going to go to sleep; or at least try to. If you find something wrong with my reasoning tell me so I can figure it out haha. Thanks again, and good night! =D
good night !
The reason why \[ \frac{d^a}{(dx)^a}\frac{d^b}{(dx)^b} f(x)= \frac{d^{a+b}}{(dx)^{a+b}} f(x) \]is because that is the rule for derivative of natural numbers, and so when extending to rational number, such derivatives must be defined in a way that obeys the rule.
Now I think there are some interesting difficulties. \[\Large \frac{d^{1/2}}{dx^{1/2}}(e^x)=\frac{d^{1/2}}{dx^{1/2}}(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!})\] \[\Large e^x = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^{n-1/2}}{(n-1/2)!}\] Now there are two options here. We can either say that the term that was n=0 was a constant and so we raise the index by 1 since we had determined that the half derivative of a constant is 0. (In fact it seems obvious that any order derivative of a constant should be zero). So now if we plug in x=0 we should get 1. However there are only essentially square roots here, so plugging it in should give us 0 which is wrong. So perhaps e^x is only its own integer derivative, not necessarily fractional derivative. Alternatively maybe the limit of this infinite sum ends up approaching 1 at x=0. Maybe it's not safe to assume that a half derivative of a constant is 0 Maybe there is some room in there to wiggle around, I don't know. Another thing to keep in mind is that we sort of got the half derivative of a constant equal to 0 based on our assumption of the derivative of e^ax which might have been wrong to begin with. Anyways, something to think about I guess I just wanted to write it down while it was still in mind.
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